Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing C

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET C.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:

a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.


2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:

a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.


3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:

a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided


4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:

a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch


5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?

a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches


6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?

a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.


7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?

a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.


8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:

a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects


9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis


10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?

a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery


11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?

a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis


12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck


13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?

a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds


14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?

a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease


15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:

a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants


16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?

a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR


17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?

a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots


18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?

a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear


19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?

a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge


20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?

a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.

"Try not to become a man of success, but rather try to become a man of value."

Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing B

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET B.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1.According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?

a. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally.
b. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services.
c. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
d. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own places of residence.


2.Nurse Marie is aware that the disease declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the Philippines is?

a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus


3. Nure Franciene knows that the step in community organizing that involves training of potential leaders in the community is:

a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation


4. Nurse Anna a public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?

a. To educate the people regarding community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems.
d. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems.


5.Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?

a. Pre-pathogenesis
b. Pathogenesis
c. Prodromal
d. Terminal


6.The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the labor and delivery area. Which condition would place the client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

a. Intrauterine fetal death.
b. Placenta accreta.
c. Dysfunctional labor.
d. Premature rupture of the membranes.


7.A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal heart rate would be:

a. 80 to 100 beats/minute
b. 100 to 120 beats/minute
c. 120 to 160 beats/minute
d. 160 to 180 beats/minute


8.The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Gretel should instruct the mother to:

a. Change the diaper more often.
b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.
c. Wash the area vigorously with each diaper change.
d. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to decrease saturating diapers.


9.Nurse Carlos knows that the common cardiac anomalies in children with Down Syndrome (tri-somy 21) is:

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Pulmonic stenosis
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Endocardial cushion defect


10. Nurse Cristeta was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia is now receiving I.V. magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects associated with magnesium sulfate is:

a. Anemia
b. Decreased urine output
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased respiratory rate


11. Mrs. Pregy Der, a 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:

a. Menorrhagia
b. Metrorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Amenorrhea


12. Mrs. Caby Nhet is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The critical laboratory result for this client would be:

a. Oxygen saturation
b. Iron binding capacity
c. Blood typing
d. Serum Calcium


13.Nurse Dorothy is aware that the most common condition found during the second-trimester of pregnancy is:

a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia


14.Nurse Imo Gin is working in the triage area of an emergency department. She sees that several pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client who needs to be treated first is:

a. A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on his scalp.
b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and flushed appearance.
c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is pale and asleep in
his mother’s arms.
d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his
mother’s arms and drooling.


15. Mrs. Calista in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease


16.A young child named Louella is suspected of having pinworms. The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen for:

a. Just before bedtime
b. After the child has been bathe
c. Any time during the day
d. Early in the morning


17.In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse Angelique should be alert to note which signs or symptoms of chronic lead poisoning?

a. Irritability and seizures
b. Dehydration and diarrhea
c. Bradycardia and hypotension
d. Petechiae and hematuria


18.To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which response indicates a need for further health teaching?

a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for atleast 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.


19.Hypoxia is a common complication of laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver should frequently assess a child with laryngotracheobronchitis for:
a. Drooling
b. Muffled voice
c. Restlessness
d. Low-grade fever


20.How should Nurse Melanie Marquez guide a child who is blind to walk to the playroom?

a. Without touching the child, talk continuously as the child walks down the hall.
b. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s hand on the nurse’s elbow.
c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child forward.
d. Walk next to the child, holding the child’s hand.

“Failure is the condiment that gives success its flavor.” -Capote

Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing A

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET A.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home pregnancy test was positive but she began to have mild cramps and is now having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the physical examination of the client, the nurse notes that May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines that May is experiencing which type of abortion?

a. Inevitable
b. Incomplete
c. Threatened
d. Septic


2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following data, if noted on the client’s record, would alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?

a. Age 36 years
b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus


3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who is newly admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel develops a plan of care for the client and determines that which of the following nursing actions is the priority?

a. Monitoring weight
b. Assessing for edema
c. Monitoring apical pulse
d. Monitoring temperature


4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant client about nutrition and insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client understands dietary and insulin needs if the client states that the second half of pregnancy require:

a. Decreased caloric intake
b. Increased caloric intake
c. Decreased Insulin
d. Increase Insulin


5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is aware that one of the following is unassociated with this condition?

a. Excessive fetal activity.
b. Larger than normal uterus for gestational age.
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.


6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:

a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
b. Absent patellar reflexes.
c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
d. Rapid rise in blood pressure.


7. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as:

a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.


8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:

a. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
b. Maternal temperature 101.2
c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.


9. Calcium gluconate is being administered to a client with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as the plan of care throughout injection of the drug is:

a. Ventilator assistance
b. CVP readings
c. EKG tracings
d. Continuous CPR


10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier caesareans, would likely to be given to a gravida, who had:

a. First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was positive.
b. First and second caesareans were for cephalopelvic disproportion.
c. First caesarean through a classic incision as a result of severe fetal distress.
d. First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.


11.Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s temperature is:

a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
d. Ignore the crying and screaming.


12.Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip and palate repair. What should the nurse do to prevent trauma to operative site?

a. Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning.
b. Place the baby in prone position.
c. Give the baby a pacifier.
d. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.


13. Which action should nurse Marian include in the care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure?

a. Feed the infant when he cries.
b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
c. Bathe the infant and administer medications before feeding.
d. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.


14.Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to discontinue breast feeding after 5 months. The nurse should advise her to include which foods in her infant’s diet?

a. Skim milk and baby food.
b. Whole milk and baby food.
c. Iron-rich formula only.
d. Iron-rich formula and baby food.


15.Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic. The mother hides a toy behind her back and the infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that estimated age of the infant
would be:

a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months


16.Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?

a. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchments area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.


17.When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating

a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness


18.Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to become a Public Health Nurse. Where should she apply?

a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit


19.Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is:

a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician


20.Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.

"Dare to be"- Maraboli

Gastrointestinal-Hepatobillary NCLEX-RN DRILL

This is a 30 point drill on concepts regarding Management of Clients with Gastrointestinal-Hepatobillary Disorders. Use this to serve as your pretest and post test on the subject Mattter

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria. Antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia?

a. vitamin A

b. vitamin D

c. vitamin E

d. vitamin K

2. When evaluating a male client for complications of acute pancreatitis, the nurse would observe for:

a. increased intracranial pressure.

b. decreased urine output.

c. bradycardia.

d. hypertension.

3. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially?

a. Lying on the right side with legs straight

b. Lying on the left side with knees bent

c. Prone with the torso elevated

d. Bent over with hands touching the floor

4. A male client with extreme weakness, pallor, weak peripheral pulses, and disorientation is admitted to the emergency department. His wife reports that he has been “spitting up blood.” A Mallory-Weiss tear is suspected, and the nurse begins taking a client history from the client’s wife. The question by the nurse that demonstrates her understanding of Mallory-Weiss tearing is:

a. “Tell me about your husband’s alcohol usage.”

b. “Is your husband being treated for tuberculosis?”

c. “Has your husband recently fallen or injured his chest?”

d. “Describe spices and condiments your husband uses on food.”

5. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube?

a. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours.

b. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously.

c. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days.

d. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings.

6. A male client is recovering from a small-bowel resection. To relieve pain, the physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours. How soon after administration should meperidine’s onset of action occur?

a. 5 to 10 minutes

b. 15 to 30 minutes

c. 30 to 60 minutes

d. 2 to 4 hours

7. The nurse is caring for a male client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease?

a. Dyspnea and fatigue

b. Ascites and orthopnea

c. Purpura and petechiae

d. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy

8. Which condition is most likely to have a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit?

a. Appendicitis

b. Pancreatitis

c. Cholecystitis

d. Gastric ulcer

9. While a female client is being prepared for discharge, the nasogastric (NG) feeding tube becomes clogged. To remedy this problem and teach the client’s family how to deal with it at home, what should the nurse do?

a. Irrigate the tube with cola.

b. Advance the tube into the intestine.

c. Apply intermittent suction to the tube.

d. Withdraw the obstruction with a 30-ml syringe.

10. A male client with pancreatitis complains of pain. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe meperidine (Demerol) instead of morphine to relieve pain because:

a. meperidine provides a better, more prolonged analgesic effect.

b. morphine may cause spasms of Oddi’s sphincter.

c. meperidine is less addictive than morphine.

d. morphine may cause hepatic dysfunction.

11. Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with severe malnutrition. After a thorough examination, the physician diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this client, the nurse is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?

a. Hopelessness

b. Powerlessness

c. Chronic low self esteem

d. Deficient knowledge

12. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?

a. Endoscopy

b. Upper GI series

c. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT)

d. Arteriography

13. A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, “How could I have gotten this disease?” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food.”

b. “You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs.”

c. “You must have received an infected blood transfusion.”

d. “You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex.”

14. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?

a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.

b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.

c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.

d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.

15. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring about hemostasis in the client are:

a. whole blood and albumin.

b. platelets and packed red blood cells.

c. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood.

d. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.

16. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?

a. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.”

b. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.”

c. “Take antacids with meals.”

d. “Limit fluid intake with meals.”

17. The nurse caring for a client with small-bowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention first?

a. Administering pain medication

b. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies

c. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube

d. Administering I.V. fluids

18. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?

a. The client doesn’t exhibit rectal tenesmus.

b. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.

c. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.

d. The client has normal gastric structures.

19. A male client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the client’s nasogastric (NG) tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?

a. Notify the physician

b. Reposition the tube

c. Irrigate the tube

d. Increase the suction level

20. What laboratory finding is the primary diagnostic indicator for pancreatitis?

a. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b. Elevated serum lipase

c. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

d. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

21. A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:

a. yellow sclerae.

b. light amber urine.

c. circumoral pallor.

d. black, tarry stools.

22. Nurse Hannah is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:

a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking.

b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking.

c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure.

d. alcohol abuse and smoking.

23. While palpating a female client’s right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which of the following structures?

a. Sigmoid colon

b. Appendix

c. Spleen

d. Liver

24. A male client has undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. The nurse’s first response is to:

a. call the physician.

b. place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound.

c. take a blood pressure and pulse.

d. pull the dehiscence closed.

25. The nurse is monitoring a female client receiving paregoric to treat diarrhea for drug interactions. Which drugs can produce additive constipation when given with an opium preparation?

a. Antiarrhythmic drugs

b. Anticholinergic drugs

c. Anticoagulant drugs

d. Antihypertensive drugs

26. A male client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge teaching, the nurse should stress the importance of:

a. increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

b. wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime.

c. consuming a low-protein, high-fiber diet.

d. taking only enteric-coated medications.

27. The nurse is caring for a female client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission?

a. Regular diet

b. Skim milk

c. Nothing by mouth

d. Clear liquids

28. A male client has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A. On assessment, the nurse expects to note:

a. severe abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder.

b. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

c. eructation and constipation.

d. abdominal ascites.

29. A female client with viral hepatitis A is being treated in an acute care facility. Because the client requires enteric precautions, the nurse should:

a. place the client in a private room.

b. wear a mask when handling the client’s bedpan.

c. wash the hands after touching the client.

d. wear a gown when providing personal care for the client.

30. Which of the following factors can cause hepatitis A?

a. Contact with infected blood

b. Blood transfusions with infected blood

c. Eating contaminated shellfish

d. Sexual contact with an infected person

"In order to succeed, your desire for success should be greater than your fear of failure."

NCLEX-RN DRILL 1

Test your knowledge in nursing concepts. Improve our test taking skills. Develop your attitude in attacking board type questions. Answer this NCLEX-RN DRILL and review the rationale behind the correct answer.

Tip!: Practice doesn't make your perfect but practice makes you better

1 A client is being discharged and needs instructions on wound care.When planning to teach the client, the nurse should:
a. identify the client’s learning needs and learning ability.
b. identify the client’s learning needs and advise him what to do.
c. identify the client’s problems and make the appropriate referral.
d. provide pamphlets or videotapes for ongoing learning.

2 A client is requesting a second opinion. The nurse who supports and promotes the client’s rights is acting as the client’s:
a. teacher.
b. adviser.
c. supporter.
d. advocate.

3 The client tells the nurse she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. The nurse recognizes this is what part of the nursing process?
a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation

4 During the assessment step of the nursing process, the nurse collects subjective and objective data. The nurse uses the information to identify:
a. medical diagnoses.
b. actual or potential problems.
c. client’s response to illness.
d. need for community support groups.

5 The nurse performs daily, routine equipment checks to detect possible malfunction. This is part of the nurse’s role in the:
a. nursing process.
b. quality assurance plan.
c. care management.
d. assessment plan.

6 The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client who has pneumonia. The nurse recognizes
the diagnosis describes an actual or potential problem that:
a. the nurse can treat independently
b. the nurse can treat with a physician’s order.
c. requires physician’s intervention.
d. relates to the clients’ primary diagnosis.

7 After administering pain medication, the nurse returns to check the client’s level of comfort. This stage
of the nursing process is known as:
a. assessment.
b. planning.
c. implementation.
d. evaluation.

8 A client has lost 10 pounds related to nausea and vomiting. The nurse identifies an appropriate expected
outcome: The client will:
a. gain weight.
b. gain 2 pounds within 1 week.
c. not lose weight.
d. gain 10 pounds in 2 days.

9 A problem-solving process that requires empathy, knowledge, divergent thinking, discipline, and creativity is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. nursing process.
c. framework for nurses.
d. care management.

10 At the end of the shift, the nurse is ready to leave but has not been relieved by the oncoming shift nurse. The nurse’s responsibility to provide care for clients is part of the nurse’s:
a. Code of Ethics.
b. nursing process.
c. critical thinking.
d. quality assurance.

“A thinker sees his own actions as experiments and questions--as attempts to find out something. Success and failure are for him answers above all.” - Nietzche