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Showing posts with label FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING. Show all posts
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Saturday, April 19, 2014
Youtube Channel
Hello there future nurses.. future colleagues. I've created a youtube channel so i ca post lecture videos on Nursing concepts particularly exam drills with time limit. This can help you gain experience in taking nursing exams under time pressure.
I've uploaded my first video on Fundamentals of Nursing.
Answers will be posted on this site.
Please subscribe in my channel and like my videos. Thanks for your support
I've uploaded my first video on Fundamentals of Nursing.
Answers will be posted on this site.
Please subscribe in my channel and like my videos. Thanks for your support
Saturday, March 15, 2014
Anatomy and Physiology Notes: The Heart
Heart and heart wall layers
1. The heart is located in the left side of the mediastinum.
2. The heart consists of three layers.
a. The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart.
b. The myocardium is the middle layer and is the
actual contracting muscle of the heart.
c. The endocardium is the innermost layer and lines
the inner chambers and heart valves.
Pericardial sac
1. Encases and protects the heart from trauma and infection
2. Has two layers
a. The parietal pericardium is the tough, fibrous outer membrane that attaches anteriorly to the lower half
of the sternum, posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae, and inferiorly to the diaphragm.
b. The visceral pericardium is the thin, inner layer that closely adheres to the heart.
3. The pericardial space is between the parietal and visceral layers; it holds 5 to 20 mL of pericardial fluid, lubricates the pericardial surfaces, and cushions the heart.
There are four heart chambers
1. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the superior and inferior vena cava.
2. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
3. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via four pulmonary veins.
4. The left ventricle is the largest and most muscular chamber; it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the left atrium and pumps blood into the systemic circulation via the aorta.
There are four valves in the heart.
1. There are two atrioventricular valves, the tricuspid and the mitral, which lie between the atria and ventricles.
a. The tricuspid valve is located on the right side of the heart.
b. The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located on the left side of the heart.
c. The atrioventricular valves close at the beginning of ventricular contraction and prevent blood from flowing
back into the atria from the ventricles; these valves open when the ventricle relaxes.
2. There are two semilunar valves, the pulmonic and the aortic.
a. The pulmonic semilunar valve lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
b. The aortic semilunar valve lies between the left ventricle and the aorta.
c. The semilunar valves prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles during relaxation; they open during
ventricular contraction and close when the ventricles begin to relax.
Sinoatrial (SA) node
1. The main pacemaker that initiates each heartbeat
2. It is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.
3. The sinoatrial node generates electrical impulses at 60 to 100 times per minute and is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Atrioventricular (AV) node
1. Located in the lower aspect of the atrial septum
2. Receives electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node
3. If the sinoatrial node fails, the atrioventricular node can initiate
and sustain a heart rate of 40 to 60 beats/min.
The bundle of His
1. A continuation of the AV node; located at the interventricular septum
2. It branches into the right bundle branch, which extends down the right side of the interventricular septum, and the left bundle branch, which extends into the left ventricle.
3. The right and left bundle branches terminate into Purkinje fibers.
Purkinje fibers
1. Purkinje fibers are a diffuse network of conducting strands located beneath the ventricular endocardium.
2. These fibers spread the wave of depolarization through the ventricles.
3. Purkinje fibers can act as the pacemaker with a rate between 20 and 40 beats/min when higher pacemakers fail
Coronary arteries
1. The coronary arteries supply the capillaries of the myocardium with blood.
2. The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium and ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, the posterior septal wall, and the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes.
3. The left main coronary artery consists of two major branches, the left anterior descending and the circumflex arteries.
4. The left anterior descending artery supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the anterior ventricular septum, and the apex of the left ventricle.
5. The circumflex artery supplies blood to the left atrium and the
lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle.
1. The heart is located in the left side of the mediastinum.
2. The heart consists of three layers.
a. The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart.
b. The myocardium is the middle layer and is the
actual contracting muscle of the heart.
c. The endocardium is the innermost layer and lines
the inner chambers and heart valves.
Pericardial sac
1. Encases and protects the heart from trauma and infection
2. Has two layers
a. The parietal pericardium is the tough, fibrous outer membrane that attaches anteriorly to the lower half
of the sternum, posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae, and inferiorly to the diaphragm.
b. The visceral pericardium is the thin, inner layer that closely adheres to the heart.
3. The pericardial space is between the parietal and visceral layers; it holds 5 to 20 mL of pericardial fluid, lubricates the pericardial surfaces, and cushions the heart.
There are four heart chambers
1. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the superior and inferior vena cava.
2. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
3. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via four pulmonary veins.
4. The left ventricle is the largest and most muscular chamber; it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the left atrium and pumps blood into the systemic circulation via the aorta.
There are four valves in the heart.
1. There are two atrioventricular valves, the tricuspid and the mitral, which lie between the atria and ventricles.
a. The tricuspid valve is located on the right side of the heart.
b. The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located on the left side of the heart.
c. The atrioventricular valves close at the beginning of ventricular contraction and prevent blood from flowing
back into the atria from the ventricles; these valves open when the ventricle relaxes.
2. There are two semilunar valves, the pulmonic and the aortic.
a. The pulmonic semilunar valve lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
b. The aortic semilunar valve lies between the left ventricle and the aorta.
c. The semilunar valves prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles during relaxation; they open during
ventricular contraction and close when the ventricles begin to relax.
Sinoatrial (SA) node
1. The main pacemaker that initiates each heartbeat
2. It is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.
3. The sinoatrial node generates electrical impulses at 60 to 100 times per minute and is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Atrioventricular (AV) node
1. Located in the lower aspect of the atrial septum
2. Receives electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node
3. If the sinoatrial node fails, the atrioventricular node can initiate
and sustain a heart rate of 40 to 60 beats/min.
The bundle of His
1. A continuation of the AV node; located at the interventricular septum
2. It branches into the right bundle branch, which extends down the right side of the interventricular septum, and the left bundle branch, which extends into the left ventricle.
3. The right and left bundle branches terminate into Purkinje fibers.
Purkinje fibers
1. Purkinje fibers are a diffuse network of conducting strands located beneath the ventricular endocardium.
2. These fibers spread the wave of depolarization through the ventricles.
3. Purkinje fibers can act as the pacemaker with a rate between 20 and 40 beats/min when higher pacemakers fail
Coronary arteries
1. The coronary arteries supply the capillaries of the myocardium with blood.
2. The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium and ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, the posterior septal wall, and the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes.
3. The left main coronary artery consists of two major branches, the left anterior descending and the circumflex arteries.
4. The left anterior descending artery supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the anterior ventricular septum, and the apex of the left ventricle.
5. The circumflex artery supplies blood to the left atrium and the
lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle.
Friday, March 14, 2014
Notes on Fluid and Electrolytes 3: FLUID VOLUME EXCESS
FLUID VOLUME EXCESS
A. Description
1. Fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body.
2. Fluid volume excess also is called overhydration or fluid overload.
3. The goal of treatment is to restore fluid balance, correct electrolyte imbalances if present, and eliminate or control the underlying cause of the overload.
B. Types
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Known as hypervolemia, isotonic overhydration results from excessive fluid in the extracellular fluid compartment.
b. Only the extracellular fluid compartment is expanded, and fluid does not shift between the extracellular and
intracellular compartments.
c. Isotonic overhydration causes circulatory overload and interstitial edema; when severe or when it occurs in a client with poor cardiac function, congestive heart
failure and pulmonary edema can result.
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Occurrence of hypertonic overhydration is rare and is caused by an excessive sodium intake.
b. Fluid is drawn from the intracellular fluid compartment; the extracellular fluid volume expands, and the intracellular fluid volume contracts.
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Hypotonic overhydration is known as water intoxication.
b. The excessive fluid moves into the intracellular space, and all body fluid compartments expand.
c. Electrolyte imbalances occur as a result of dilution.
C. Causes
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
b. Renal failure
c. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Excessive sodium ingestion
b. Rapid infusion of hypertonic saline
c. Excessive sodium bicarbonate therapy
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Early renal failure
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
d. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
e. Replacement of isotonic fluid loss with hypotonic fluids
f. Irrigation of wounds and body cavities with hypotonic fluids
D. Assessment
1. Cardiovascular
a. Bounding, increased pulse rate
b. Elevated blood pressure
c. Distended neck and hand veins
d. Elevated central venous pressure
2. Respiratory
a. Increased respiratory rate (shallow respirations)
b. Dyspnea
c. Moist crackles on auscultation
3. Neuromuscular
a. Altered level of consciousness
b. Headache
c. Visual disturbances
d. Skeletal muscle weakness
e. Paresthesias
4. Integumentary
a. Pitting edema in dependent areas
b. Skin pale and cool to touch
5. Increased motility in the gastrointestinal tract
6. Isotonic overhydration results in liver enlargement and ascites.
7. Hypotonic overhydration results in the following:
a. Polyuria
b. Diarrhea
c. Nonpitting edema
d. Dysrhythmias
e. Projectile vomiting
8. Laboratory findings
a. Decreased serum osmolality
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Decreased BUN level
d. Decreased serum sodium level
e. Decreased urine specific gravity
E. Interventions
1. Monitor cardiovascular, respiratory, neuromuscular, renal, integumentary, and gastrointestinal status.
2. Prevent further fluid overload, and restore normal fluid balance.
3. Administer diuretics; osmotic diuretics typically are prescribed first to prevent severe electrolyte imbalances.
4. Restrict fluid and sodium intake.
5. Monitor intake and output and weight.
6. Monitor electrolyte values, and prepare to administer medication to treat an imbalance if present.
A. Description
1. Fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body.
2. Fluid volume excess also is called overhydration or fluid overload.
3. The goal of treatment is to restore fluid balance, correct electrolyte imbalances if present, and eliminate or control the underlying cause of the overload.
B. Types
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Known as hypervolemia, isotonic overhydration results from excessive fluid in the extracellular fluid compartment.
b. Only the extracellular fluid compartment is expanded, and fluid does not shift between the extracellular and
intracellular compartments.
c. Isotonic overhydration causes circulatory overload and interstitial edema; when severe or when it occurs in a client with poor cardiac function, congestive heart
failure and pulmonary edema can result.
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Occurrence of hypertonic overhydration is rare and is caused by an excessive sodium intake.
b. Fluid is drawn from the intracellular fluid compartment; the extracellular fluid volume expands, and the intracellular fluid volume contracts.
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Hypotonic overhydration is known as water intoxication.
b. The excessive fluid moves into the intracellular space, and all body fluid compartments expand.
c. Electrolyte imbalances occur as a result of dilution.
C. Causes
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
b. Renal failure
c. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Excessive sodium ingestion
b. Rapid infusion of hypertonic saline
c. Excessive sodium bicarbonate therapy
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Early renal failure
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
d. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
e. Replacement of isotonic fluid loss with hypotonic fluids
f. Irrigation of wounds and body cavities with hypotonic fluids
D. Assessment
1. Cardiovascular
a. Bounding, increased pulse rate
b. Elevated blood pressure
c. Distended neck and hand veins
d. Elevated central venous pressure
2. Respiratory
a. Increased respiratory rate (shallow respirations)
b. Dyspnea
c. Moist crackles on auscultation
3. Neuromuscular
a. Altered level of consciousness
b. Headache
c. Visual disturbances
d. Skeletal muscle weakness
e. Paresthesias
4. Integumentary
a. Pitting edema in dependent areas
b. Skin pale and cool to touch
5. Increased motility in the gastrointestinal tract
6. Isotonic overhydration results in liver enlargement and ascites.
7. Hypotonic overhydration results in the following:
a. Polyuria
b. Diarrhea
c. Nonpitting edema
d. Dysrhythmias
e. Projectile vomiting
8. Laboratory findings
a. Decreased serum osmolality
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Decreased BUN level
d. Decreased serum sodium level
e. Decreased urine specific gravity
E. Interventions
1. Monitor cardiovascular, respiratory, neuromuscular, renal, integumentary, and gastrointestinal status.
2. Prevent further fluid overload, and restore normal fluid balance.
3. Administer diuretics; osmotic diuretics typically are prescribed first to prevent severe electrolyte imbalances.
4. Restrict fluid and sodium intake.
5. Monitor intake and output and weight.
6. Monitor electrolyte values, and prepare to administer medication to treat an imbalance if present.
Monday, February 3, 2014
Notes on Fluid and Electrolyte 2: CONCEPTS OF FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
CONCEPTS OF FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
1. Description: A substance that is dissolved in solution and ome of its molecules split or dissociate into electrically charged atoms or ions.
2. Measurement
a. The metric system is used to measure volumes of fluids—liters (L) or milliliters (mL).
b. The unit of measure that expresses the combining activity of an electrolyte is the milliequivalent (mEq).
c. One milliequivalent (1 mEq) of any cation will always react chemically with 1 mEq of an anion.
d. Milliequivalents provide information about the number of anions or cations available to combine with other anions or cations.
B. Body fluid compartments
1. Description
a. Fluid in each of the body compartments contains electrolytes.
b. Each compartment has a particular composition of electrolytes, which differs from that of other compartments.
c. To function normally, body cells must have fluids and electrolytes in the right compartments and in the right amounts.
d. Whenever an electrolyte moves out of a cell, another electrolyte moves in to take its place.
e. The numbers of cations and anions must be the same for homeostasis to exist.
f. Compartments are separated by semipermeable membranes.
2. Intravascular compartment: Refers to fluid inside a blood vessel
3. Intracellular compartment
a. The intracellular compartment refers to all fluid inside the cell.
b. Most bodily fluids are inside the cell.
4. The extracellular compartment is the fluid outside the cell.
a. The extracellular compartment includes the interstitial fluid, which is fluid between cells (sometimes called the third space), blood, lymph, bone, connective tissue, water, and transcellular fluid.
b. Transcellular fluid is the fluid in various parts of the body, such as peritoneal fluid, pleural fluid, cerebrospinal fluid, and synovial fluid.
C. Third-spacing
1. Third-spacing is the accumulation and sequestration of trapped extracellular fluid in an actual or potential body space as a result of disease or injury.
2. The trapped fluid represents a volume loss and is unavailable for normal physiological processes.
3. Fluid may be trapped in body spaces such as the pericardial, pleural, peritoneal, or joint cavities, the bowel, or the aabdomen, or within soft tissues after trauma or burns.
4. Assessing the intravascular fluid loss caused by third-spacing is difficult. The loss may not be reflected
in weight changes or intake and output records and may not become apparent until after organ malfunction occurs.
D. Edema
1. Edema is an excess accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.
2. Localized edema occurs as a result of traumatic injury from accidents or surgery, local inflammatory processes, or burns.
3. Generalized edema, also called anasarca, is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space throughout the body and occurs as a result of conditions such as cardiac, renal, or liver failure.
E. Body fluid
1. Description
a. Body fluids transport nutrients to the cells and carry waste products from the cells.
b. Total body fluid (intracellular and extracellular) amounts to about 60% of body weight in the adult,
55% in the older adult, and 80% in the infant.
c. Thus, infants and the older adult are at ahigher risk for fluid-related problems than younger adults; children have a greater proportion of body water than adults and the older adult has the least proportion of body water.
2. Constituents of body fluids
a. Body fluids consist of water and dissolved substances.
b. The largest single fluid constituent of the body is water.
c. Some substances, such as glucose, urea, and creatinine, do not dissociate in solution; that is, they do not separate from their complex forms into simpler substances when they are in solution.
d. Other substances do dissociate; for example, when sodium chloride is in a solution, it dissociates or
separates into two parts or elements.
F. Body fluid transport
1. Diffusion
a. Diffusion is the process whereby a solute (substance that is dissolved) may spread through a solution or solvent (solution in which the solute is dissolved).
b. Diffusion of a solute will spread the molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
c. A permeable membrane will allow substances to pass through it without restriction.
d. A selectively permeable membrane will allow some solutes to pass through without restriction but will prevent other solutes from passing freely.
e. Diffusion occurs within fluid compartments and from one compartment to another if the barrier
between the compartments is permeable to the diffusing substances.
2. Osmosis
a. Osmotic pressure is the force that draws the solvent from a less concentrated solute through a selectively permeable membrane into a more concentrated solute, thus tending to equalize the concentration of the solvent.
b. If a membrane is permeable to water but not to all the solutes present, the membrane is a selective or semipermeable membrane.
c. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules across a membrane in response to a concentration gradient, usually from a solution of lower to one of higher solute concentration.
d. When a more concentrated solution is on one side of a selectively permeable membrane and a less concentrated solution is on the other side, a pull called osmotic pressure draws the water through
the membrane to the more concentrated side or the side with more solute.
3. Filtration
a. Filtration is the movement of solutes and solvents by hydrostatic pressure.
b. The movement is from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.
4. Hydrostatic pressure
a. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by the weight of a solution.
b. When a difference exists in the hydrostatic pressure on two sides of a membrane, water and diffusible solutes move out of the solution that has the higher hydrostatic pressure by the process of filtration.
c. At the arterial end of the capillary, the hydrostatic pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure; therefore, fluids and diffusible solutes move out of the capillary.
d. At the venous end, the osmotic pressure or pull is higher than the hydrostatic pressure, and fluids and some solutes move into the capillary.
e. The excess fluid and solutes remaining in the interstitial spaces are returned to the intravascular compartment by the lymph channels.
5. Osmolality
a. Osmolality refers to the number of osmotically active particles/kilogram of water; it is the concentration of a solution.
b. In the body, osmotic pressure is measured in milliosmoles (mOsm).
c. The normal osmolality of plasma is 270 to 300 milliosmoles/kilogram (mOsm/kg) water.
G. Movement of body fluid
1. Description
a. Cell membranes separate the interstitial fluid from the intravascular fluid.
b. Cell membranes are selectively permeable; that is, the cell membrane and the capillary wall will allow water and some solutes free passage through them.
c. Several forces affect the movement of water and solutes through the walls of cells and capillaries.
d. The greater the number of particles within the cell, the more pressure exists to force the water through
the cell membrane.
e. If the body loses more electrolytes than fluids, as can happen in diarrhea, then the extracellular fluid will contain fewer electrolytes or less solute than the intracellular fluid.
f. Fluids and electrolytes must be kept in balance for health; when they remain out of balance, death can
occur.
2. Isotonic solutions
a. When the solutions on both sides of a selectively permeable membrane have established equilibrium or are equal in concentration, they are isotonic.
b. An example of an isotonic solution is 0.9% sodium chloride, which is referred to as isotonic saline solution or normal saline solution.
c. Isotonic solutions are isotonic to human cells, and thus very little osmosis occurs; isotonic solutions have the same osmolality as body fluids.
d. Other solutions that are isotonic are 5% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.225% saline, and Ringer's
lactate solution.
3. Hypotonic solutions
a. When a solution contains a lower concentration of salt or solute than another more concentrated solution, it is considered hypotonic.
b. A hypotonic solution has less salt or more water than an isotonic solution; these solutions have lower osmolality than body fluids.
c. 0.45% sodium chloride, 0.225% sodium chloride, and 0.33% sodium chloride are examples of hypotonic solutions.
d. Hypotonic solutions are hypotonic to the cells; therefore, osmosis would continue in an attempt to bring about balance or equality.
4. Hypertonic solutions
a. A solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than another less concentrated solution is hypertonic; these solutions have a higher osmolality than body fluids.
b. Hypertonic solutions include 3% sodium chloride, 5% sodium chloride, 10% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride, 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride, and 5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate solution.
c. Refer to Table 14-1 (Chap. 14) for a list of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic solutions.
5. Osmotic pressure
a. The amount of osmotic pressure is determined by the concentration of solutes in solution.
b. When the solutions on each side of a selectively permeable membrane are equal in concentration, they are isotonic.
c. A hypotonic solution has less solute than an isotonic solution, whereas a hypertonic solution contains more solute.
d. A solvent will move from the less concentrated solute side to the more concentrated solute side to equalize concentration.
6. Active transport
a. If an ion is to move through a membrane from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration, an active transport system is necessary.
b. An active transport system moves molecules or ions against concentration and osmotic pressure.
c. Metabolic processes in the cell supply the energy for active transport.
d. Substances that are transported actively through the cell membrane include ions of sodium, potassium, calcium, iron, and hydrogen, some of the sugars, and the amino acids.
H. Body fluid excretion
1. Description
a. Fluids leave the body by several routes, including the skin, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys.
b. The kidneys excrete the largest quantity of fluid.
c. As long as all organs are functioning normally, the body is able to maintain balance in its fluid content.
2. Skin
a. Water is lost through the skin in the amount of about 400 mL/day.
b. The amount of water lost by perspiration varies according to the temperature of the environment and of the body, but the average amount of loss by perspiration alone is 100 mL/day.
c. Water lost through the skin is called insensible loss (the individual is unaware of losing that water).
3. Lungs
a. Water is lost from the lungs through expired air that is saturated with water vapor.
b. The amount of water lost from the lungs varies with the rate and the depth of respiration.
c. The average amount of water lost from the lungs is about 350 mL/day.
d. Water lost from the lungs is called insensible loss.
4. Gastrointestinal tract
a. Large quantities of water are secreted into the gastrointestinal tract, but almost all this fluid is reabsorbed.
b. A large volume of electrolyte-containing liquids moves into the gastrointestinal tract and then returns again into the extracellular fluid.
c. The average amount of water lost in the feces is 150 mL/day, equal to the amount of water gained through the oxidation of foods.
d. Severe diarrhea results in the loss of large quantities of fluids and electrolytes.
5. Kidneys
a. The kidneys play a major role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance.
b. Normal kidneys can adjust the amount of water and electrolytes leaving the body.
c. The quantity of fluid excreted by the kidneys is determined by the amount of water ingested and the amount of waste and solutes excreted.
d. The usual urine output is about 1500 mL/day; however, this varies greatly depending on fluid intake, amount of perspiration, and other factors.
I. Body fluid replacement
1. Description: Water enters the body through three sources—orally ingested liquids, water in foods, and water formed by oxidation of foods.
2. Amounts
a. The average total amount of water taken into the body by all three sources is 2500 mL/day.
b. About 10 mL of water is released by the metabolism of each 100 calories of fat, carbohydrates, or proteins.
3. Electrolytes
a. Electrolytes are present in foods and liquids.
b. With a normal diet, an excess of essential electrolytes is
taken in and the unused electrolytes are excreted.
J. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
1. Description
a. Homeostasis is a term that indicates the relative stability of the internal environment.
b. Concentration and composition of body fluids must be nearly constant.
c. In a client, when one of the substances is deficient, either fluids or electrolytes, the substance must be replaced normally by the intake of food and water or by therapy such as intravenous solutions and medications.
d. When the client has an excess of fluid or electrolytes, therapy is directed toward assisting the body to eliminate the excess.
2. The kidneys play a major role in controlling all types of balance in fluid and electrolytes.
3. The adrenal glands, through the secretion of aldosterone, also aid in controlling extracellular fluid volume by regulating the amount of sodium reabsorbed by the kidneys.
4. Antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland regulates the osmotic pressure of extracellular fluid by regulating the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidney.
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Sunday, February 2, 2014
Notes on Fluids and Electrolytes Part 1
This Notes on Fluids and Electrolytes (1) focus primarily on the assessment of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance, interventions, and evaluating the expected outcomes. Fluids and electrolytes constitute a content area that is sometimes complex and difficult to understand. The nurse must understand cell functions and properties and the concepts related to body fluids as outlined in this chapter. It focuses on the common fluid and electrolyte disturbances. As you review this content, focus on the Pyramid Points related to the causes, assessment findings, and related treatments. In any fluid or electrolyte imbalance, nursing interventions include monitoring significant laboratory results and monitoring the client's cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neuromuscular, renal, and central nervous system status. Integrated Processes addressed in this chapter are Caring, Communication and Documentation, Nursing Process, and Teaching/Learning.
Important Terms
calcium
A mineral element needed for the process of bone formation, coagulation of blood, excitation of cardiac and skeletal muscle, maintenance of muscle tone, conduction of neuromuscular impulses, and the synthesis and regulation of the endocrine and exocrine glands. The normal adult level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL.
fluid volume deficit
Dehydration in which the fluid intake of the body is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body.
fluid volume excess
Fluid intake or fluid retention that exceeds the fluid needs of the body. Also called overhydration or fluid overload.
homeostasis
The tendency of biological systems to maintain relatively constant conditions in the internal environment while continuously interacting with and adjusting to changes originating within or outside the system.
hypercalcemia
A serum calcium level that exceeds 10.0 mg/dL.
hyperkalemia
A serum potassium level that exceeds 5.1 mEq/L.
hypermagnesemia
A serum magnesium level that exceeds 2.6 mg/dL.
hypernatremia
A serum sodium level that exceeds 145 mEq/L.
hyperphosphatemia
A serum phosphorus level that exceeds 4.5 mg/dL.
hypocalcemia
A serum calcium level less than 8.6 mg/dL.
hypokalemia
A serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L.
hypomagnesemia
A serum magnesium level less than 1.6 mg/dL.
hyponatremia
A serum sodium level less than 135 mEq/L.
hypophosphatemia
A serum phosphorus level less than 2.7 mg/dL.
magnesium
Concentrated in the bone, cartilage, and within the cell itself; required for the use of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as a source of energy. It is necessary for the action of numerous enzyme systems such as carbohydrate metabolism, protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, and contraction of muscular tissue. It
also regulates neuromuscular activity and the clotting mechanism. The normal adult level is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL.
potassium
A principle electrolyte of intracellular fluid and the primary buffer within the cell itself. It is needed for nerve conduction, muscle function, acid-base balance, and osmotic pressure. Along with calcium and magnesium, it controls
sodium
An abundant electrolyte that maintains osmotic pressure and acid-base balance and transmits nerve impulses. The normal adult level is 135 to 145 mEq/L.
Friday, January 31, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing D
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET D.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
“If A is a success in life, then A equals x plus y plus z. Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut” - A. Eistein
Wednesday, January 29, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Dill: Fundamentals of Nursing C
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET C.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Tuesday, January 28, 2014
Nursing Leader: Sanger and Breckinridge
This is a series of post regarding notable nursing leaders who have given many contribution to nursing and their influence uplifted the nursing profession.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development.
Sanger (1879-1966)
Margaret Biggins Sanger, a public health nurse in New York, has had a lasting impact on women's health care. Imprisoned for opening the first birth control information clinic in America, she is considered the founder of Planned Parenthood. Her experience with the large number of unwanted pregnancies among the working poor was instrumental in addressing this problem.
Breckinridge (1881-1965)
After World War I, Mary Breckinridge, a notable pioneer nurse, established the Frontier Nursing Service (FNS). In 1918, she worked with the American Committee for Devastated France, distributing food, clothing, and supplies to rural villages and taking care of sick children. In 1921, Breckinridge returned to the United States with plans to provide health care to the people of rural America. In 1925, Breckinridge and two other nurses began the FNS in Leslie County, Kentucky. Within this organization, Breckinridge started one of the first midwifery training schools in the United States.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development.
Sanger (1879-1966)
Margaret Biggins Sanger, a public health nurse in New York, has had a lasting impact on women's health care. Imprisoned for opening the first birth control information clinic in America, she is considered the founder of Planned Parenthood. Her experience with the large number of unwanted pregnancies among the working poor was instrumental in addressing this problem.
Breckinridge (1881-1965)
After World War I, Mary Breckinridge, a notable pioneer nurse, established the Frontier Nursing Service (FNS). In 1918, she worked with the American Committee for Devastated France, distributing food, clothing, and supplies to rural villages and taking care of sick children. In 1921, Breckinridge returned to the United States with plans to provide health care to the people of rural America. In 1925, Breckinridge and two other nurses began the FNS in Leslie County, Kentucky. Within this organization, Breckinridge started one of the first midwifery training schools in the United States.
Saturday, January 18, 2014
Nursing Leader: Lavinia Dock
This is a series of post regarding notable nursing leaders who have given many contribution to nursing and their influence uplifted the nursing profession.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development.
Dock (1858-1956)
Lavinia L. Dock was a feminist, prolific writer, political activist, suffragette, and friend- of Wald. She participated in protest movements for women's rights that resulted in the 1920 passage of the 19th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which granted women the right to vote. In addition, Dock campaigned for legislation to allow nurses rather than physicians to control their profession. In 1893, Dock, with the assistance of Mary Adelaide Nutting and Isabel Hampton Robb, founded the American Society of Superintendents of Training Schools for Nurses of the United States and Canada, a precursor to the current National League for Nursing.
Biography
Lavinia Dock was born in Harrisburg, Pennsylvania in 1858. She graduated from the Bellevue Training School for Nurses in 1886. In 1889 she helped in the disaster relief effort following the devastating flood in Johnstown, Pennsylvania. In 1890 she became Isabel Hampton's assistant superintendent at the Johns Hopkins Hospital Training School for Nurses, where she was in charge of instruction . The same year, her textbook Materia Medica for Nurses which quickly became a standard in Nursing curriculum was published. She spoke at the Columbian Exposition at the World's Fair in Chicago in 1893. In 1907, along with Mary Adelaide Nutting she wrote the illustrated A History of Nursing. She went on to write more books on the history of nursing, including A Short History of Nursing with Isabel M. Stewart in 1920, and History of American Red Cross Nursing with Sarah E. Pickett in 1922. She was a member of the Nurses' Settlement in New York, Secretary of the American Federation of Nurses and of the International Council of Nurses. She was also a member of the National Women's Party which campaigned for the equal rights amendment introduced in 1923. She served as secretary for the International Council of Nurses from 1899 to 1922. From 1900 to 1923 she was a contributing editor for the American Journal of Nursing's "Foreign Department". She was made an honorary member of the Johns Hopkins Nurses' Alumnae Association at its founding in 1892. In 1976 she was inducted into the American Nurses Association Hall of Fame.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development.
Dock (1858-1956)
Lavinia L. Dock was a feminist, prolific writer, political activist, suffragette, and friend- of Wald. She participated in protest movements for women's rights that resulted in the 1920 passage of the 19th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which granted women the right to vote. In addition, Dock campaigned for legislation to allow nurses rather than physicians to control their profession. In 1893, Dock, with the assistance of Mary Adelaide Nutting and Isabel Hampton Robb, founded the American Society of Superintendents of Training Schools for Nurses of the United States and Canada, a precursor to the current National League for Nursing.
Biography
Lavinia Dock was born in Harrisburg, Pennsylvania in 1858. She graduated from the Bellevue Training School for Nurses in 1886. In 1889 she helped in the disaster relief effort following the devastating flood in Johnstown, Pennsylvania. In 1890 she became Isabel Hampton's assistant superintendent at the Johns Hopkins Hospital Training School for Nurses, where she was in charge of instruction . The same year, her textbook Materia Medica for Nurses which quickly became a standard in Nursing curriculum was published. She spoke at the Columbian Exposition at the World's Fair in Chicago in 1893. In 1907, along with Mary Adelaide Nutting she wrote the illustrated A History of Nursing. She went on to write more books on the history of nursing, including A Short History of Nursing with Isabel M. Stewart in 1920, and History of American Red Cross Nursing with Sarah E. Pickett in 1922. She was a member of the Nurses' Settlement in New York, Secretary of the American Federation of Nurses and of the International Council of Nurses. She was also a member of the National Women's Party which campaigned for the equal rights amendment introduced in 1923. She served as secretary for the International Council of Nurses from 1899 to 1922. From 1900 to 1923 she was a contributing editor for the American Journal of Nursing's "Foreign Department". She was made an honorary member of the Johns Hopkins Nurses' Alumnae Association at its founding in 1892. In 1976 she was inducted into the American Nurses Association Hall of Fame.
Sunday, January 12, 2014
Nursing Leader: Lillian Wald
This is a series of post regarding notable nursing leaders who have given many contribution to nursing and their influence uplifted the nursing profession.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development
Wald (1867-1940)
Lillian Wald (Figure 1-13 •) is considered the founder of public health nursing. Wald and Mary Brewster were the first to offer trained nursing services to the poor in the New York slums. Their home among the poor on the upper floor of a tenement, called the Henry Street Settlement and Visiting Nurse Service,provided nursing services, social services, and organized educational and cultural activities. Soon after the founding of the
Lillian Wald invented public health nursing in 1893, making this year the field's centennial. One of nursing's visionaries, Wald secured reforms in health, industry, education, recreation, and housing. This historical inquiry examines three of Wald's critical experiments, each of which illuminates the past of public health nursing and its contemporary dilemmas: invention of public health nursing itself, establishment of a nationwide system of insurance payments for home-based care, and creation of a national public health nursing service.
Lllian Wald was born into a comfortable Jewish family in 1867, but chose to work in the tenements of New York City. She coined the phrase “public health nursing” and is considered to be the founder of that profession.
Lillian was educated at a private boarding school. She had graduated from a two-year nursing program and was taking classes at the Women’s Medical College when she became involved in organizing a class in home nursing for poor immigrants on New York’s Lower East Side. Lillian, distressed by the conditions in the multi-story walk-up, cold-water flats, moved to the neighborhood and, along with her classmate and colleague Mary Brewster, volunteered her services as a visiting nurse. With the aid of a couple of wealthy patrons, the operation quickly grew in size. The Henry Street Settlement (otherwise known as the VNS, or Visiting Nurse Service) grew from 2 nurses in 1893 to 27 in 1906, and to 92 in 1913.
The nurses educated the tenement residents about infection control, disease transmission, and personal hygiene. They stressed the importance of preventative care, but also provided acute and long-term care for the ill. They received fees based on the patient’s ability to pay. The organization also eventually incorporated housing, employment, and educational assistance and recreational programs as well. In 1912, Wald helped found the National Organization for Public Health Nursing, which would set professional standards and share information. She served as its first president.
Her other accomplishments included:
• Persuading President Theodore Roosevelt to create a Federal Children’s Bureau to protect children from abuse, especially exploitation such as improper child labor.
• Lobbying for health inspections of the workplace to protect workers from unsafe conditions and encouraging employers to have nursing or medical professionals on-site.
• Convincing the New York Board of Education to hire its first nurse, which lead to the standard practice within in the U.S. of having a nurse on duty at schools.
• Persuading Columbia University to appoint the first professor of nursing in the country, and initiating a series of lectures for prospective nurses at Columbia’s Teachers College. This became the basis a few years later for the University’s Department of Nursing and Health and caused nursing education to shift away from solely hospital-taught training to university courses augmented by hospital fieldwork.
Wald wrote two books about her experiences, The House on Henry Street, and Windows on Henry Street. She died in Westport, Connecticut, on September 1, 1940. Wald’s legacy is seen in the lasting good of her many accomplishments in the areas of public health and social services, not the least of which is her founding of the VNS. The New York Visiting Nurse Service continued to grow and thrive, increasing to 3,000 employees, with the number of people served annually now totaling 700,000. The original VNS is still a model for the 13,000 visiting nurse groups which exist today.
Wald said, “Nursing is love in action, and there is no finer manifestation of it than the care of the poor and disabled in their own homes.”
Summary
Wald coined the term "public health nurse" in 1893 for nurses who worked outside hospitals in poor and middle-class communities. Specializing in both preventative care and the preservation of health, these nurses responded to referrals from physicians and patients, and received fees based on the patient's ability to pay. In response to growing demand from all sides, Wald helped to initiate a series of lectures to educate prospective nurses at Columbia University's Teachers College in 1899. Students attended classes at Columbia and received their field training at Henry Street. This series led to the formation of the University's Department of Nursing and Health in 1910. By 1912, public health nurses—sometimes called visiting or district nurses—had begun to have significant impact. Wald and her colleagues in the public health movement recognized the need for the establishment of professional standards for public health nurses. Like other professional organizations, the National Organization of Public Health Nurses (NOPHN) was designed to set professional standards, share techniques and protect the reputations of its members. Wald was elected as the organization's first president.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development
Wald (1867-1940)
Lillian Wald (Figure 1-13 •) is considered the founder of public health nursing. Wald and Mary Brewster were the first to offer trained nursing services to the poor in the New York slums. Their home among the poor on the upper floor of a tenement, called the Henry Street Settlement and Visiting Nurse Service,provided nursing services, social services, and organized educational and cultural activities. Soon after the founding of the
Lillian Wald invented public health nursing in 1893, making this year the field's centennial. One of nursing's visionaries, Wald secured reforms in health, industry, education, recreation, and housing. This historical inquiry examines three of Wald's critical experiments, each of which illuminates the past of public health nursing and its contemporary dilemmas: invention of public health nursing itself, establishment of a nationwide system of insurance payments for home-based care, and creation of a national public health nursing service.
Lllian Wald was born into a comfortable Jewish family in 1867, but chose to work in the tenements of New York City. She coined the phrase “public health nursing” and is considered to be the founder of that profession.
Lillian was educated at a private boarding school. She had graduated from a two-year nursing program and was taking classes at the Women’s Medical College when she became involved in organizing a class in home nursing for poor immigrants on New York’s Lower East Side. Lillian, distressed by the conditions in the multi-story walk-up, cold-water flats, moved to the neighborhood and, along with her classmate and colleague Mary Brewster, volunteered her services as a visiting nurse. With the aid of a couple of wealthy patrons, the operation quickly grew in size. The Henry Street Settlement (otherwise known as the VNS, or Visiting Nurse Service) grew from 2 nurses in 1893 to 27 in 1906, and to 92 in 1913.
The nurses educated the tenement residents about infection control, disease transmission, and personal hygiene. They stressed the importance of preventative care, but also provided acute and long-term care for the ill. They received fees based on the patient’s ability to pay. The organization also eventually incorporated housing, employment, and educational assistance and recreational programs as well. In 1912, Wald helped found the National Organization for Public Health Nursing, which would set professional standards and share information. She served as its first president.
Her other accomplishments included:
• Persuading President Theodore Roosevelt to create a Federal Children’s Bureau to protect children from abuse, especially exploitation such as improper child labor.
• Lobbying for health inspections of the workplace to protect workers from unsafe conditions and encouraging employers to have nursing or medical professionals on-site.
• Convincing the New York Board of Education to hire its first nurse, which lead to the standard practice within in the U.S. of having a nurse on duty at schools.
• Persuading Columbia University to appoint the first professor of nursing in the country, and initiating a series of lectures for prospective nurses at Columbia’s Teachers College. This became the basis a few years later for the University’s Department of Nursing and Health and caused nursing education to shift away from solely hospital-taught training to university courses augmented by hospital fieldwork.
Wald wrote two books about her experiences, The House on Henry Street, and Windows on Henry Street. She died in Westport, Connecticut, on September 1, 1940. Wald’s legacy is seen in the lasting good of her many accomplishments in the areas of public health and social services, not the least of which is her founding of the VNS. The New York Visiting Nurse Service continued to grow and thrive, increasing to 3,000 employees, with the number of people served annually now totaling 700,000. The original VNS is still a model for the 13,000 visiting nurse groups which exist today.
Wald said, “Nursing is love in action, and there is no finer manifestation of it than the care of the poor and disabled in their own homes.”
Summary
Wald coined the term "public health nurse" in 1893 for nurses who worked outside hospitals in poor and middle-class communities. Specializing in both preventative care and the preservation of health, these nurses responded to referrals from physicians and patients, and received fees based on the patient's ability to pay. In response to growing demand from all sides, Wald helped to initiate a series of lectures to educate prospective nurses at Columbia University's Teachers College in 1899. Students attended classes at Columbia and received their field training at Henry Street. This series led to the formation of the University's Department of Nursing and Health in 1910. By 1912, public health nurses—sometimes called visiting or district nurses—had begun to have significant impact. Wald and her colleagues in the public health movement recognized the need for the establishment of professional standards for public health nurses. Like other professional organizations, the National Organization of Public Health Nurses (NOPHN) was designed to set professional standards, share techniques and protect the reputations of its members. Wald was elected as the organization's first president.
Friday, January 10, 2014
Nursing Leader: Mary Mahoney
This is a series of post regarding notable nursing leaders who have given many contribution to nursing and their influence uplifted the nursing profession.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development
Mahoney (1845-1926)
Mary Mahoney was the first African American professional nurse. She graduated from the New England Hospital for Women and Children in 1879. She constantly worked for the acceptance of African Americans in nursing and for the promotion of equal opportunities (Donahue, 1996, p. 271). The American Nurses Association (2006b) gives a Mary Mahoney Award biennially in recognition of significant contributions in
interracial relationships.
Nursing Leaders
Florence Nightingale, Clara Barton, Lillian Wald, Lavinia Dock, Margaret Sanger, and Mary Breckinridge are among the leaders who have made notable contributions both to nursing's history and to women's history. These women were all politically astute pioneers. Their skills at influencing others and bringing about change remain models for political nurse activists today. Contemporary nursing leaders, such as Virginia Henderson, who created a modern worldwide definition of nursing, and Martha Rogers, a catalyst for theory development
Mahoney (1845-1926)
Mary Mahoney was the first African American professional nurse. She graduated from the New England Hospital for Women and Children in 1879. She constantly worked for the acceptance of African Americans in nursing and for the promotion of equal opportunities (Donahue, 1996, p. 271). The American Nurses Association (2006b) gives a Mary Mahoney Award biennially in recognition of significant contributions in
interracial relationships.
Wednesday, January 1, 2014
NCLEX-RN DRILL 1
Test your knowledge in nursing concepts. Improve our test taking skills. Develop your attitude in attacking board type questions. Answer this NCLEX-RN DRILL and review the rationale behind the correct answer.
Tip!: Practice doesn't make your perfect but practice makes you better
1 A client is being discharged and needs instructions on wound care.When planning to teach the client, the nurse should:
a. identify the client’s learning needs and learning ability.
b. identify the client’s learning needs and advise him what to do.
c. identify the client’s problems and make the appropriate referral.
d. provide pamphlets or videotapes for ongoing learning.
2 A client is requesting a second opinion. The nurse who supports and promotes the client’s rights is acting as the client’s:
a. teacher.
b. adviser.
c. supporter.
d. advocate.
3 The client tells the nurse she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. The nurse recognizes this is what part of the nursing process?
a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation
4 During the assessment step of the nursing process, the nurse collects subjective and objective data. The nurse uses the information to identify:
a. medical diagnoses.
b. actual or potential problems.
c. client’s response to illness.
d. need for community support groups.
5 The nurse performs daily, routine equipment checks to detect possible malfunction. This is part of the nurse’s role in the:
a. nursing process.
b. quality assurance plan.
c. care management.
d. assessment plan.
6 The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client who has pneumonia. The nurse recognizes
the diagnosis describes an actual or potential problem that:
a. the nurse can treat independently
b. the nurse can treat with a physician’s order.
c. requires physician’s intervention.
d. relates to the clients’ primary diagnosis.
7 After administering pain medication, the nurse returns to check the client’s level of comfort. This stage
of the nursing process is known as:
a. assessment.
b. planning.
c. implementation.
d. evaluation.
8 A client has lost 10 pounds related to nausea and vomiting. The nurse identifies an appropriate expected
outcome: The client will:
a. gain weight.
b. gain 2 pounds within 1 week.
c. not lose weight.
d. gain 10 pounds in 2 days.
9 A problem-solving process that requires empathy, knowledge, divergent thinking, discipline, and creativity is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. nursing process.
c. framework for nurses.
d. care management.
10 At the end of the shift, the nurse is ready to leave but has not been relieved by the oncoming shift nurse. The nurse’s responsibility to provide care for clients is part of the nurse’s:
a. Code of Ethics.
b. nursing process.
c. critical thinking.
d. quality assurance.
Tip!: Practice doesn't make your perfect but practice makes you better
1 A client is being discharged and needs instructions on wound care.When planning to teach the client, the nurse should:
a. identify the client’s learning needs and learning ability.
b. identify the client’s learning needs and advise him what to do.
c. identify the client’s problems and make the appropriate referral.
d. provide pamphlets or videotapes for ongoing learning.
2 A client is requesting a second opinion. The nurse who supports and promotes the client’s rights is acting as the client’s:
a. teacher.
b. adviser.
c. supporter.
d. advocate.
3 The client tells the nurse she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. The nurse recognizes this is what part of the nursing process?
a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation
4 During the assessment step of the nursing process, the nurse collects subjective and objective data. The nurse uses the information to identify:
a. medical diagnoses.
b. actual or potential problems.
c. client’s response to illness.
d. need for community support groups.
5 The nurse performs daily, routine equipment checks to detect possible malfunction. This is part of the nurse’s role in the:
a. nursing process.
b. quality assurance plan.
c. care management.
d. assessment plan.
6 The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client who has pneumonia. The nurse recognizes
the diagnosis describes an actual or potential problem that:
a. the nurse can treat independently
b. the nurse can treat with a physician’s order.
c. requires physician’s intervention.
d. relates to the clients’ primary diagnosis.
7 After administering pain medication, the nurse returns to check the client’s level of comfort. This stage
of the nursing process is known as:
a. assessment.
b. planning.
c. implementation.
d. evaluation.
8 A client has lost 10 pounds related to nausea and vomiting. The nurse identifies an appropriate expected
outcome: The client will:
a. gain weight.
b. gain 2 pounds within 1 week.
c. not lose weight.
d. gain 10 pounds in 2 days.
9 A problem-solving process that requires empathy, knowledge, divergent thinking, discipline, and creativity is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. nursing process.
c. framework for nurses.
d. care management.
10 At the end of the shift, the nurse is ready to leave but has not been relieved by the oncoming shift nurse. The nurse’s responsibility to provide care for clients is part of the nurse’s:
a. Code of Ethics.
b. nursing process.
c. critical thinking.
d. quality assurance.
“A thinker sees his own actions as experiments and questions--as attempts to find out something. Success and failure are for him answers above all.” - Nietzche
Friday, December 27, 2013
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing B
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET B.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. The nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is essential to decrease the complications associated with catheter insertion?
a. cleanse the female client using betadine-soaked 4x4’s, cleaning from the rectal area to the clitoris
b. utilizing a catheter that is slightly larger than the external urinary meatus
c. utilize clean technique
d. test the retention balloon prior to insertion
2. The nurse is caring for an adult client who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which nursing intervention is essential?
a. encourage large amounts of fluids prior to the test
b. assess for any indications of allergies
c. administer a laxative
d. restrict fluids only in clients with marginal renal reserve or uncontrolled diabetes
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube attached to low wall suction. The suction is not working. Which is the nurse least likely to note when assessing the client?
a. client vomits
b. client has a distended abdomen
c. there is no nasogastric output in the last two hours
d. large amounts of nasogastric output
4. A client who has ascites is admitted to the hospital and will be undergoing a paracentesis. What should be included in the nursing care plan?
a. monitor client closely for evidence of vascular collapse
b. place client in Trendelenburg position for the procedure
c. encourage client to drink plenty of fluids to distend the bladder prior to the procedure
d. have client remain on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure
5. A patient underwent an exploratory laparotomy two days ago. The physician has just written an order for a soft diet. The nurse assessed the client and did not hear bowel sounds in any quadrant. What is the best nursing action?
a. follow the physician’s order and feed the client
b. cancel the physician’s order and make the client NPO
c. order clear liquids for the client
d. notify the physician that the client does not have bowel sounds at this time
6. Your patient is receiving O2 at 2 liters per nasal cannula. His roommate lights a cigarette and tosses the match catching the curtain on fire. What is the priority action for the nurse?
a. turn off the oxygen
b. sound the fire alarm
c. try to extinguish the fire
d. remove the clients from the room
7. An 84-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a complication of immobility?
a. stiffness of the right ankle joint
b. soreness of the gums
c. short term memory loss
d. decreased appetite
8. Which of the following nursing interventions indicate an understanding on the part of the nurse concerning proper care of pressure ulcers?
a. rub reddened skin to increase circulation
b. use a heat lamp 4 times a day to dry the wound surface
c. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with isotonic saline
d. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with povidone-iodine
ANSWER C: A noninfected pressure ulcer should be cleansed gently with a non-ionic cleanser such as isotonic saline to prevent disruption of healing.
9. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
a. masks should be worn with all client contact
b. gloves should be worn for contact with non-intact skin, mucous membranes or soiled items
c. isolation gowns are not needed
d. a private room is always indicated
10. A female client will have to change the dressing on her injured right leg twice a day. The dressing will be a sterile dressing, using 4x4’s, normal saline irrigant, and abdominal pads. Which statement best indicates that the patient understands the importance of maintaining asepsis?
a. “If I drop the 4x4’s on the floor, I can use them as long as they are not soiled.”
b. “If I drop the 4x4's on the floor, I can use them if I rinse them with sterile normal saline.”
c. “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”
d. “I should put on my sterile gloves, then open the bottle of saline to soak the 4x4’s.”
11. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform prior to administering a tube feeding?
a. check for placement by aspirating for gastric contents with a syringe and test pH with Testape
b. advance the tube 3-5 inches prior to the feeding
c. instruct the client to swallow
d. instill 30 ml of sterile water into the tube
12. An adult client is being treated in the burn unit for partial and full-thickness burns of the left foot, ankle, and leg. Skin autographs are taken from the right thigh and a skin graft is performed. The nurse planning care for the client on return from the operating room includes which of the following nursing interventions?
a. change dressing on graft sites every shift
b. cover donor site with fine mesh gauze and expose to air
c. lubricate donor site with skin cream every shift
d. hydrotherapy to graft sites daily
13. The nurse is caring for a client who is being transfused for severe gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse can decrease the danger of hypothermia by:
a. administering blood with normal saline
b. administering blood products through a central line
c. giving only packed cells
d. warming blood to body temperature before administering
14. The mother of a three-year-old child calls the clinic and states that her child has just swallowed an unknown amount of baby aspirin. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
a. call the physician
b. instruct the mother to bring the child to the emergency room as soon as possible
c. discuss with the mother observable changes for which she should watch the child
d. tell the mother to give ipecac to the child and then come to the emergency room
15. A 56-year-old is admitted to the burn unit with partial and full-thickness burns of both legs, which occurred when a charcoal grill tipped over on her. The burn area is edematous. Blister formation and a large amount of fluid exudate is noted. Urine output is 30 ml per hour, BP 90/60, and pulses 110. A primary nursing diagnosis during the initial 48-72 hours following the burn is:
a. body image disturbance related to disfiguring burns of both legs
b. high risk for infection related to skin breakdown
c. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to smoke inhalation
d. fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
16. While assessing the client with burns on the back and trunk, the nurse notes areas that are not painful, grayish–white in color, and leathery in appearance. The nurse documents that these burns are:
a. superficial burns
b. superficial partial thickness burns
c. deep partial thickness burns
d. full thickness burns
17. An adult is scheduled for IVP. Before sending her to have the test the nurse should:
a. ask if she is allergic to barium
b. ask is she is allergic to shellfish
c. give her a full glass of water
d. instruct her not to urinate until after the test
18. An adult has received one unit of packed red blood cells after sustaining severe trauma to his legs with profuse bleeding. To evaluate whether the transfusion has been effective the nurse should:
a. take his blood pressure
b. auscultate lung sounds
c. check hemoglobin and hematocrit results
d. take his temperature
19. The nurse is administering tracheostomy care to an adult. Which of the following should be included in the procedure?
a. soaking the outer cannula with saline solution
b. performing the procedure utilizing medical asepsis
c. soaking the inner cannula in half-strength hydrogen peroxide solution
d. cutting a sterile gauze pad to place between the neck and the tracheostomy tube
20. Which of the following teaching should the nurse include when establishing a bowel-training regimen for a 62-year-old with chronic constipation?
a. avoid laxative
b. decrease exercise
c. increase the fiber content of your diet
d. increase fluid intake 4500-5000 ml
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. The nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is essential to decrease the complications associated with catheter insertion?
a. cleanse the female client using betadine-soaked 4x4’s, cleaning from the rectal area to the clitoris
b. utilizing a catheter that is slightly larger than the external urinary meatus
c. utilize clean technique
d. test the retention balloon prior to insertion
2. The nurse is caring for an adult client who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which nursing intervention is essential?
a. encourage large amounts of fluids prior to the test
b. assess for any indications of allergies
c. administer a laxative
d. restrict fluids only in clients with marginal renal reserve or uncontrolled diabetes
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube attached to low wall suction. The suction is not working. Which is the nurse least likely to note when assessing the client?
a. client vomits
b. client has a distended abdomen
c. there is no nasogastric output in the last two hours
d. large amounts of nasogastric output
4. A client who has ascites is admitted to the hospital and will be undergoing a paracentesis. What should be included in the nursing care plan?
a. monitor client closely for evidence of vascular collapse
b. place client in Trendelenburg position for the procedure
c. encourage client to drink plenty of fluids to distend the bladder prior to the procedure
d. have client remain on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure
5. A patient underwent an exploratory laparotomy two days ago. The physician has just written an order for a soft diet. The nurse assessed the client and did not hear bowel sounds in any quadrant. What is the best nursing action?
a. follow the physician’s order and feed the client
b. cancel the physician’s order and make the client NPO
c. order clear liquids for the client
d. notify the physician that the client does not have bowel sounds at this time
6. Your patient is receiving O2 at 2 liters per nasal cannula. His roommate lights a cigarette and tosses the match catching the curtain on fire. What is the priority action for the nurse?
a. turn off the oxygen
b. sound the fire alarm
c. try to extinguish the fire
d. remove the clients from the room
7. An 84-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a complication of immobility?
a. stiffness of the right ankle joint
b. soreness of the gums
c. short term memory loss
d. decreased appetite
8. Which of the following nursing interventions indicate an understanding on the part of the nurse concerning proper care of pressure ulcers?
a. rub reddened skin to increase circulation
b. use a heat lamp 4 times a day to dry the wound surface
c. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with isotonic saline
d. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with povidone-iodine
ANSWER C: A noninfected pressure ulcer should be cleansed gently with a non-ionic cleanser such as isotonic saline to prevent disruption of healing.
9. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
a. masks should be worn with all client contact
b. gloves should be worn for contact with non-intact skin, mucous membranes or soiled items
c. isolation gowns are not needed
d. a private room is always indicated
10. A female client will have to change the dressing on her injured right leg twice a day. The dressing will be a sterile dressing, using 4x4’s, normal saline irrigant, and abdominal pads. Which statement best indicates that the patient understands the importance of maintaining asepsis?
a. “If I drop the 4x4’s on the floor, I can use them as long as they are not soiled.”
b. “If I drop the 4x4's on the floor, I can use them if I rinse them with sterile normal saline.”
c. “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”
d. “I should put on my sterile gloves, then open the bottle of saline to soak the 4x4’s.”
11. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform prior to administering a tube feeding?
a. check for placement by aspirating for gastric contents with a syringe and test pH with Testape
b. advance the tube 3-5 inches prior to the feeding
c. instruct the client to swallow
d. instill 30 ml of sterile water into the tube
12. An adult client is being treated in the burn unit for partial and full-thickness burns of the left foot, ankle, and leg. Skin autographs are taken from the right thigh and a skin graft is performed. The nurse planning care for the client on return from the operating room includes which of the following nursing interventions?
a. change dressing on graft sites every shift
b. cover donor site with fine mesh gauze and expose to air
c. lubricate donor site with skin cream every shift
d. hydrotherapy to graft sites daily
13. The nurse is caring for a client who is being transfused for severe gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse can decrease the danger of hypothermia by:
a. administering blood with normal saline
b. administering blood products through a central line
c. giving only packed cells
d. warming blood to body temperature before administering
14. The mother of a three-year-old child calls the clinic and states that her child has just swallowed an unknown amount of baby aspirin. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
a. call the physician
b. instruct the mother to bring the child to the emergency room as soon as possible
c. discuss with the mother observable changes for which she should watch the child
d. tell the mother to give ipecac to the child and then come to the emergency room
15. A 56-year-old is admitted to the burn unit with partial and full-thickness burns of both legs, which occurred when a charcoal grill tipped over on her. The burn area is edematous. Blister formation and a large amount of fluid exudate is noted. Urine output is 30 ml per hour, BP 90/60, and pulses 110. A primary nursing diagnosis during the initial 48-72 hours following the burn is:
a. body image disturbance related to disfiguring burns of both legs
b. high risk for infection related to skin breakdown
c. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to smoke inhalation
d. fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
16. While assessing the client with burns on the back and trunk, the nurse notes areas that are not painful, grayish–white in color, and leathery in appearance. The nurse documents that these burns are:
a. superficial burns
b. superficial partial thickness burns
c. deep partial thickness burns
d. full thickness burns
17. An adult is scheduled for IVP. Before sending her to have the test the nurse should:
a. ask if she is allergic to barium
b. ask is she is allergic to shellfish
c. give her a full glass of water
d. instruct her not to urinate until after the test
18. An adult has received one unit of packed red blood cells after sustaining severe trauma to his legs with profuse bleeding. To evaluate whether the transfusion has been effective the nurse should:
a. take his blood pressure
b. auscultate lung sounds
c. check hemoglobin and hematocrit results
d. take his temperature
19. The nurse is administering tracheostomy care to an adult. Which of the following should be included in the procedure?
a. soaking the outer cannula with saline solution
b. performing the procedure utilizing medical asepsis
c. soaking the inner cannula in half-strength hydrogen peroxide solution
d. cutting a sterile gauze pad to place between the neck and the tracheostomy tube
20. Which of the following teaching should the nurse include when establishing a bowel-training regimen for a 62-year-old with chronic constipation?
a. avoid laxative
b. decrease exercise
c. increase the fiber content of your diet
d. increase fluid intake 4500-5000 ml
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
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