FLUID VOLUME DEFICIT
A. Description
1. Dehydration occurs when the fluid intake of the body is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body.
2. The goal of treatment is to restore fluid volume, replace electrolytes as needed, and eliminate the cause of the fluid volume deficit.
B. Types of fluid volume deficits
1. Isotonic dehydration
a. Water and dissolved electrolytes are lost in equal proportions.
b. Known as hypovolemia, isotonic dehydration is the most common type of dehydration.
c. Isotonic dehydration results in decreased circulating blood volume and inadequate tissue perfusion.
2. Hypertonic dehydration
a. Water loss exceeds electrolyte loss.
b. The clinical problems that occur result from alterations in the concentrations of specific plasma electrolytes.
c. Fluid moves from the intracellular compartment into the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces, causing cellular dehydration and shrinkage.
3. Hypotonic dehydration
a. Electrolyte loss exceeds water loss.
b. The clinical problems that occur result from fluid shifts between compartments, causing a decrease in
plasma volume.
c. Fluid moves from the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces into the cells, causing a plasma volume deficit and causing the cells to swell.
C. Causes of fluid volume deficits
1. Isotonic dehydration
a. Inadequate intake of fluids and solutes
b. Fluid shifts between compartments
c. Excessive losses of isotonic body fluids
2. Hypertonic dehydration—conditions that increase fluid
loss, such as excessive perspiration, hyperventilation,
ketoacidosis, prolonged fevers, diarrhea, early-stage
renal failure, and diabetes insipidus
3. Hypotonic dehydration
a. Chronic illness
b. Excessive fluid replacement (hypotonic)
c. Renal failure
d. Chronic malnutrition
D. Assessment
1. Cardiovascular
a. Thready, increased pulse rate
b. Decreased blood pressure and orthostatic (postural) hypotension
c. Flat neck and hand veins in dependent positions
d. Diminished peripheral pulses
2. Respiratory: Increased rate and depth of respirations
3. Neuromuscular
a. Decreased central nervous system activity, from lethargy to coma
b. Fever
4. Renal
a. Decreased urinary output
b. Increased urinary specific gravity
5. Integumentary
a. Dry skin
b. Poor turgor, tenting present
c. Dry mouth
6. Gastrointestinal
a. Decreased motility and diminished bowel sounds
b. Constipation
c. Thirst
d. Decreased body weight
7. Hypotonic dehydration: skeletal muscle weakness
8. Hypertonic dehydration
a. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
b. Pitting edema
9. Laboratory findings
a. Increased serum osmolality
b. Increased hematocrit
c. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
d. Increased serum sodium level
E. Interventions
1. Monitor cardiovascular, respiratory, neuromuscular, renal, integumentary, and gastrointestinal status.
2. Prevent further fluid losses and increase fluid compartment volumes to normal ranges.
3. Provide oral rehydration therapy if possible and intravenous (IV) fluid replacement if the dehydration is
severe; monitor intake and output.
4. Generally, isotonic dehydration is treated with isotonic fluid solutions, hypertonic dehydration with hypotonic fluid solutions, and hypotonic dehydration with hypertonic fluid solutions.
5. Administer medications as prescribed such as antidiarrheal, antimicrobial, antiemetic, and antipyretic
medications, to correct the cause and treat any symptoms.
6. Administer oxygen as prescribed.
7. Monitor electrolyte values and prepare to administer medication to treat an imbalance, if present.
Showing posts with label NURSING CARE. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NURSING CARE. Show all posts
Friday, April 4, 2014
Saturday, March 29, 2014
Anatomy and Physiology Notes: Endocrine System
This is an outlined lecture note on the Anatomy and Physiology of the Endocrine System. Some information are so compressed that some concepts are not explained in detail. If it is your first time to meet such information please refer to your textbook for further explanation of the concept. This review material requires a student to have a prior knowledge and good foundation of the subject matter for this only emphasizes important/ key information deemed important in understanding advanced concept in Pathophysiology and Medical Surgical Nursing.
Functions of Endocrine Glands
- Maintenance and regulation of vital functions
- Response to stress and injury
- Growth and development
- Energy metabolism
- Reproduction
- Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
Hypothalamus
- Portion of the diencephalon of the brain, forming the floor and part of the lateral wall of the third ventricle
- Activates, controls, and integrates the peripheral autonomic nervous system, endocrine processes, and many somatic functions, such as body temperature, sleep, and appetite
Pituitary gland
- The master gland; located at the base of the brain 2. Influenced by the hypothalamus; directly affects the function of the other endocrine glands
- Promotes growth of body tissue, influences water absorption by the kidney, and controls sexual development and function
Adrenal gland
- One adrenal gland is on top of each kidney.
- Regulates sodium and electrolyte balance; affects carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism; influences the development of sexual characteristics; and sustains the fight-or-flight response
Adrenal cortex
- The cortex is the outer shell of the adrenal gland.
-. The cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids and secretes small amounts of sex hormones
Adrenal medulla
- The medulla is the inner core of the adrenal gland.
- The medulla works as part of the sympathetic nervous system and produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Thyroid gland
- Located in the anterior part of the neck
- Controls the rate of body metabolism and growth and produces thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyrocalcitonin
Parathyroid glands
- Located on the thyroid gland
- Control calcium and phosphorus metabolism; produce parathyroid hormone
Pancreas
- Located posteriorly to the stomach
- Influences carbohydrate metabolism, indirectly influences fat and protein metabolism, and produces insulin and glucagon
Ovaries and testes
-The ovaries are located in the pelvic cavity and produce estrogen and progesterone.
-The testes are located in the scrotum, control the development of the secondary sex characteristics, and produce testosterone.
Negative feedback loop
-Regulates hormone secretion by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
-Increased amounts of target gland hormones in the bloodstream decrease secretion of the same hormone and other hormones that stimulate its release.
Functions of Endocrine Glands
- Maintenance and regulation of vital functions
- Response to stress and injury
- Growth and development
- Energy metabolism
- Reproduction
- Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
Hypothalamus
- Portion of the diencephalon of the brain, forming the floor and part of the lateral wall of the third ventricle
- Activates, controls, and integrates the peripheral autonomic nervous system, endocrine processes, and many somatic functions, such as body temperature, sleep, and appetite
Pituitary gland
- The master gland; located at the base of the brain 2. Influenced by the hypothalamus; directly affects the function of the other endocrine glands
- Promotes growth of body tissue, influences water absorption by the kidney, and controls sexual development and function
Adrenal gland
- One adrenal gland is on top of each kidney.
- Regulates sodium and electrolyte balance; affects carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism; influences the development of sexual characteristics; and sustains the fight-or-flight response
Adrenal cortex
- The cortex is the outer shell of the adrenal gland.
-. The cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids and secretes small amounts of sex hormones
Adrenal medulla
- The medulla is the inner core of the adrenal gland.
- The medulla works as part of the sympathetic nervous system and produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Thyroid gland
- Located in the anterior part of the neck
- Controls the rate of body metabolism and growth and produces thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyrocalcitonin
Parathyroid glands
- Located on the thyroid gland
- Control calcium and phosphorus metabolism; produce parathyroid hormone
Pancreas
- Located posteriorly to the stomach
- Influences carbohydrate metabolism, indirectly influences fat and protein metabolism, and produces insulin and glucagon
Ovaries and testes
-The ovaries are located in the pelvic cavity and produce estrogen and progesterone.
-The testes are located in the scrotum, control the development of the secondary sex characteristics, and produce testosterone.
Negative feedback loop
-Regulates hormone secretion by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
-Increased amounts of target gland hormones in the bloodstream decrease secretion of the same hormone and other hormones that stimulate its release.
“Success is getting what you want, happiness is wanting what you get” -Kinsela
Friday, March 14, 2014
Notes on Fluid and Electrolytes 3: FLUID VOLUME EXCESS
FLUID VOLUME EXCESS
A. Description
1. Fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body.
2. Fluid volume excess also is called overhydration or fluid overload.
3. The goal of treatment is to restore fluid balance, correct electrolyte imbalances if present, and eliminate or control the underlying cause of the overload.
B. Types
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Known as hypervolemia, isotonic overhydration results from excessive fluid in the extracellular fluid compartment.
b. Only the extracellular fluid compartment is expanded, and fluid does not shift between the extracellular and
intracellular compartments.
c. Isotonic overhydration causes circulatory overload and interstitial edema; when severe or when it occurs in a client with poor cardiac function, congestive heart
failure and pulmonary edema can result.
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Occurrence of hypertonic overhydration is rare and is caused by an excessive sodium intake.
b. Fluid is drawn from the intracellular fluid compartment; the extracellular fluid volume expands, and the intracellular fluid volume contracts.
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Hypotonic overhydration is known as water intoxication.
b. The excessive fluid moves into the intracellular space, and all body fluid compartments expand.
c. Electrolyte imbalances occur as a result of dilution.
C. Causes
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
b. Renal failure
c. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Excessive sodium ingestion
b. Rapid infusion of hypertonic saline
c. Excessive sodium bicarbonate therapy
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Early renal failure
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
d. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
e. Replacement of isotonic fluid loss with hypotonic fluids
f. Irrigation of wounds and body cavities with hypotonic fluids
D. Assessment
1. Cardiovascular
a. Bounding, increased pulse rate
b. Elevated blood pressure
c. Distended neck and hand veins
d. Elevated central venous pressure
2. Respiratory
a. Increased respiratory rate (shallow respirations)
b. Dyspnea
c. Moist crackles on auscultation
3. Neuromuscular
a. Altered level of consciousness
b. Headache
c. Visual disturbances
d. Skeletal muscle weakness
e. Paresthesias
4. Integumentary
a. Pitting edema in dependent areas
b. Skin pale and cool to touch
5. Increased motility in the gastrointestinal tract
6. Isotonic overhydration results in liver enlargement and ascites.
7. Hypotonic overhydration results in the following:
a. Polyuria
b. Diarrhea
c. Nonpitting edema
d. Dysrhythmias
e. Projectile vomiting
8. Laboratory findings
a. Decreased serum osmolality
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Decreased BUN level
d. Decreased serum sodium level
e. Decreased urine specific gravity
E. Interventions
1. Monitor cardiovascular, respiratory, neuromuscular, renal, integumentary, and gastrointestinal status.
2. Prevent further fluid overload, and restore normal fluid balance.
3. Administer diuretics; osmotic diuretics typically are prescribed first to prevent severe electrolyte imbalances.
4. Restrict fluid and sodium intake.
5. Monitor intake and output and weight.
6. Monitor electrolyte values, and prepare to administer medication to treat an imbalance if present.
A. Description
1. Fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body.
2. Fluid volume excess also is called overhydration or fluid overload.
3. The goal of treatment is to restore fluid balance, correct electrolyte imbalances if present, and eliminate or control the underlying cause of the overload.
B. Types
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Known as hypervolemia, isotonic overhydration results from excessive fluid in the extracellular fluid compartment.
b. Only the extracellular fluid compartment is expanded, and fluid does not shift between the extracellular and
intracellular compartments.
c. Isotonic overhydration causes circulatory overload and interstitial edema; when severe or when it occurs in a client with poor cardiac function, congestive heart
failure and pulmonary edema can result.
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Occurrence of hypertonic overhydration is rare and is caused by an excessive sodium intake.
b. Fluid is drawn from the intracellular fluid compartment; the extracellular fluid volume expands, and the intracellular fluid volume contracts.
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Hypotonic overhydration is known as water intoxication.
b. The excessive fluid moves into the intracellular space, and all body fluid compartments expand.
c. Electrolyte imbalances occur as a result of dilution.
C. Causes
1. Isotonic overhydration
a. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
b. Renal failure
c. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
2. Hypertonic overhydration
a. Excessive sodium ingestion
b. Rapid infusion of hypertonic saline
c. Excessive sodium bicarbonate therapy
3. Hypotonic overhydration
a. Early renal failure
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
d. Inadequately controlled IV therapy
e. Replacement of isotonic fluid loss with hypotonic fluids
f. Irrigation of wounds and body cavities with hypotonic fluids
D. Assessment
1. Cardiovascular
a. Bounding, increased pulse rate
b. Elevated blood pressure
c. Distended neck and hand veins
d. Elevated central venous pressure
2. Respiratory
a. Increased respiratory rate (shallow respirations)
b. Dyspnea
c. Moist crackles on auscultation
3. Neuromuscular
a. Altered level of consciousness
b. Headache
c. Visual disturbances
d. Skeletal muscle weakness
e. Paresthesias
4. Integumentary
a. Pitting edema in dependent areas
b. Skin pale and cool to touch
5. Increased motility in the gastrointestinal tract
6. Isotonic overhydration results in liver enlargement and ascites.
7. Hypotonic overhydration results in the following:
a. Polyuria
b. Diarrhea
c. Nonpitting edema
d. Dysrhythmias
e. Projectile vomiting
8. Laboratory findings
a. Decreased serum osmolality
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Decreased BUN level
d. Decreased serum sodium level
e. Decreased urine specific gravity
E. Interventions
1. Monitor cardiovascular, respiratory, neuromuscular, renal, integumentary, and gastrointestinal status.
2. Prevent further fluid overload, and restore normal fluid balance.
3. Administer diuretics; osmotic diuretics typically are prescribed first to prevent severe electrolyte imbalances.
4. Restrict fluid and sodium intake.
5. Monitor intake and output and weight.
6. Monitor electrolyte values, and prepare to administer medication to treat an imbalance if present.
Friday, February 28, 2014
Human Immunodeficiency Virus / Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome Lecture Notes
This is a Medical Surgical Nursing lecture note on AIDS/HIV in outlined format. Information and concepts are compressed to provide a quick review of the topic. Some information are so compressed that some concepts are not expounded in detail. If it is your first time to meet such information please refer to your textbook for further explanation of the concept. This review material requires a student to have a prior knowledge and good foundation of the subject matter for this only emphasizes important/ key information deemed important in understanding concepts in Pathophysiology and Medical Surgical Nursing.
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
High-risk groups
Heterosexual or homosexual contact with high-risk individuals
Intravenous drug abusers
Persons receiving blood products
Health care workers
Babies born to infected mothers
Assessment
Malaise, fever, anorexia, weight loss, influenza-like symptoms
Lymphadenopathy for at least 3 months
Leukopenia
Diarrhea
Fatigue
Night sweats
Presence of opportunistic infections
Protozoal infections (Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, major source of mortality)
Neoplasms (Kaposi's sarcoma, purplish-red lesions of internal organs and skin, B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, cervical cancer)
Fungal infections (candidiasis, histoplasmosis)
Viral infections (cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex)
Bacterial infections
Interventions
1. Provide respiratory support.
2. Administer oxygen and respiratory treatments as prescribed.
3. Provide psychosocial support as needed.
4. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. Monitor for signs of infection.
6. Prevent the spread of infection.
7. Initiate standard precautions.
8. Provide comfort as necessary.
9. Provide meticulous skin care.
10. Provide adequate nutritional support as prescribed.
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
- AIDS is a viral disease caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to infection and malignancy
- The syndrome is manifested clinically by opportunistic infection and unusual neoplasms.
- AIDS is considered a chronic illness.
- The disease has a long incubation period, sometimes 10 years or longer.
- Manifestations may not appear until late in the infection.
High-risk groups
Heterosexual or homosexual contact with high-risk individuals
Intravenous drug abusers
Persons receiving blood products
Health care workers
Babies born to infected mothers
Assessment
Malaise, fever, anorexia, weight loss, influenza-like symptoms
Lymphadenopathy for at least 3 months
Leukopenia
Diarrhea
Fatigue
Night sweats
Presence of opportunistic infections
Protozoal infections (Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, major source of mortality)
Neoplasms (Kaposi's sarcoma, purplish-red lesions of internal organs and skin, B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, cervical cancer)
Fungal infections (candidiasis, histoplasmosis)
Viral infections (cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex)
Bacterial infections
Interventions
1. Provide respiratory support.
2. Administer oxygen and respiratory treatments as prescribed.
3. Provide psychosocial support as needed.
4. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. Monitor for signs of infection.
6. Prevent the spread of infection.
7. Initiate standard precautions.
8. Provide comfort as necessary.
9. Provide meticulous skin care.
10. Provide adequate nutritional support as prescribed.
"Success is not final, failure is not fatal: it is the courage to continue that counts"
Tuesday, February 18, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing C
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET C.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided
4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?
a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants
16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR
17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided
4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?
a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants
16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR
17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
"Try not to become a man of success, but rather try to become a man of value."
Friday, January 31, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing D
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET D.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
“If A is a success in life, then A equals x plus y plus z. Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut” - A. Eistein
Wednesday, January 29, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Dill: Fundamentals of Nursing C
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET C.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Wednesday, January 1, 2014
NCLEX-RN DRILL 1
Test your knowledge in nursing concepts. Improve our test taking skills. Develop your attitude in attacking board type questions. Answer this NCLEX-RN DRILL and review the rationale behind the correct answer.
Tip!: Practice doesn't make your perfect but practice makes you better
1 A client is being discharged and needs instructions on wound care.When planning to teach the client, the nurse should:
a. identify the client’s learning needs and learning ability.
b. identify the client’s learning needs and advise him what to do.
c. identify the client’s problems and make the appropriate referral.
d. provide pamphlets or videotapes for ongoing learning.
2 A client is requesting a second opinion. The nurse who supports and promotes the client’s rights is acting as the client’s:
a. teacher.
b. adviser.
c. supporter.
d. advocate.
3 The client tells the nurse she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. The nurse recognizes this is what part of the nursing process?
a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation
4 During the assessment step of the nursing process, the nurse collects subjective and objective data. The nurse uses the information to identify:
a. medical diagnoses.
b. actual or potential problems.
c. client’s response to illness.
d. need for community support groups.
5 The nurse performs daily, routine equipment checks to detect possible malfunction. This is part of the nurse’s role in the:
a. nursing process.
b. quality assurance plan.
c. care management.
d. assessment plan.
6 The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client who has pneumonia. The nurse recognizes
the diagnosis describes an actual or potential problem that:
a. the nurse can treat independently
b. the nurse can treat with a physician’s order.
c. requires physician’s intervention.
d. relates to the clients’ primary diagnosis.
7 After administering pain medication, the nurse returns to check the client’s level of comfort. This stage
of the nursing process is known as:
a. assessment.
b. planning.
c. implementation.
d. evaluation.
8 A client has lost 10 pounds related to nausea and vomiting. The nurse identifies an appropriate expected
outcome: The client will:
a. gain weight.
b. gain 2 pounds within 1 week.
c. not lose weight.
d. gain 10 pounds in 2 days.
9 A problem-solving process that requires empathy, knowledge, divergent thinking, discipline, and creativity is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. nursing process.
c. framework for nurses.
d. care management.
10 At the end of the shift, the nurse is ready to leave but has not been relieved by the oncoming shift nurse. The nurse’s responsibility to provide care for clients is part of the nurse’s:
a. Code of Ethics.
b. nursing process.
c. critical thinking.
d. quality assurance.
Tip!: Practice doesn't make your perfect but practice makes you better
1 A client is being discharged and needs instructions on wound care.When planning to teach the client, the nurse should:
a. identify the client’s learning needs and learning ability.
b. identify the client’s learning needs and advise him what to do.
c. identify the client’s problems and make the appropriate referral.
d. provide pamphlets or videotapes for ongoing learning.
2 A client is requesting a second opinion. The nurse who supports and promotes the client’s rights is acting as the client’s:
a. teacher.
b. adviser.
c. supporter.
d. advocate.
3 The client tells the nurse she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. The nurse recognizes this is what part of the nursing process?
a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation
4 During the assessment step of the nursing process, the nurse collects subjective and objective data. The nurse uses the information to identify:
a. medical diagnoses.
b. actual or potential problems.
c. client’s response to illness.
d. need for community support groups.
5 The nurse performs daily, routine equipment checks to detect possible malfunction. This is part of the nurse’s role in the:
a. nursing process.
b. quality assurance plan.
c. care management.
d. assessment plan.
6 The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client who has pneumonia. The nurse recognizes
the diagnosis describes an actual or potential problem that:
a. the nurse can treat independently
b. the nurse can treat with a physician’s order.
c. requires physician’s intervention.
d. relates to the clients’ primary diagnosis.
7 After administering pain medication, the nurse returns to check the client’s level of comfort. This stage
of the nursing process is known as:
a. assessment.
b. planning.
c. implementation.
d. evaluation.
8 A client has lost 10 pounds related to nausea and vomiting. The nurse identifies an appropriate expected
outcome: The client will:
a. gain weight.
b. gain 2 pounds within 1 week.
c. not lose weight.
d. gain 10 pounds in 2 days.
9 A problem-solving process that requires empathy, knowledge, divergent thinking, discipline, and creativity is known as:
a. critical thinking.
b. nursing process.
c. framework for nurses.
d. care management.
10 At the end of the shift, the nurse is ready to leave but has not been relieved by the oncoming shift nurse. The nurse’s responsibility to provide care for clients is part of the nurse’s:
a. Code of Ethics.
b. nursing process.
c. critical thinking.
d. quality assurance.
“A thinker sees his own actions as experiments and questions--as attempts to find out something. Success and failure are for him answers above all.” - Nietzche
Friday, December 27, 2013
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing B
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET B.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. The nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is essential to decrease the complications associated with catheter insertion?
a. cleanse the female client using betadine-soaked 4x4’s, cleaning from the rectal area to the clitoris
b. utilizing a catheter that is slightly larger than the external urinary meatus
c. utilize clean technique
d. test the retention balloon prior to insertion
2. The nurse is caring for an adult client who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which nursing intervention is essential?
a. encourage large amounts of fluids prior to the test
b. assess for any indications of allergies
c. administer a laxative
d. restrict fluids only in clients with marginal renal reserve or uncontrolled diabetes
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube attached to low wall suction. The suction is not working. Which is the nurse least likely to note when assessing the client?
a. client vomits
b. client has a distended abdomen
c. there is no nasogastric output in the last two hours
d. large amounts of nasogastric output
4. A client who has ascites is admitted to the hospital and will be undergoing a paracentesis. What should be included in the nursing care plan?
a. monitor client closely for evidence of vascular collapse
b. place client in Trendelenburg position for the procedure
c. encourage client to drink plenty of fluids to distend the bladder prior to the procedure
d. have client remain on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure
5. A patient underwent an exploratory laparotomy two days ago. The physician has just written an order for a soft diet. The nurse assessed the client and did not hear bowel sounds in any quadrant. What is the best nursing action?
a. follow the physician’s order and feed the client
b. cancel the physician’s order and make the client NPO
c. order clear liquids for the client
d. notify the physician that the client does not have bowel sounds at this time
6. Your patient is receiving O2 at 2 liters per nasal cannula. His roommate lights a cigarette and tosses the match catching the curtain on fire. What is the priority action for the nurse?
a. turn off the oxygen
b. sound the fire alarm
c. try to extinguish the fire
d. remove the clients from the room
7. An 84-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a complication of immobility?
a. stiffness of the right ankle joint
b. soreness of the gums
c. short term memory loss
d. decreased appetite
8. Which of the following nursing interventions indicate an understanding on the part of the nurse concerning proper care of pressure ulcers?
a. rub reddened skin to increase circulation
b. use a heat lamp 4 times a day to dry the wound surface
c. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with isotonic saline
d. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with povidone-iodine
ANSWER C: A noninfected pressure ulcer should be cleansed gently with a non-ionic cleanser such as isotonic saline to prevent disruption of healing.
9. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
a. masks should be worn with all client contact
b. gloves should be worn for contact with non-intact skin, mucous membranes or soiled items
c. isolation gowns are not needed
d. a private room is always indicated
10. A female client will have to change the dressing on her injured right leg twice a day. The dressing will be a sterile dressing, using 4x4’s, normal saline irrigant, and abdominal pads. Which statement best indicates that the patient understands the importance of maintaining asepsis?
a. “If I drop the 4x4’s on the floor, I can use them as long as they are not soiled.”
b. “If I drop the 4x4's on the floor, I can use them if I rinse them with sterile normal saline.”
c. “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”
d. “I should put on my sterile gloves, then open the bottle of saline to soak the 4x4’s.”
11. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform prior to administering a tube feeding?
a. check for placement by aspirating for gastric contents with a syringe and test pH with Testape
b. advance the tube 3-5 inches prior to the feeding
c. instruct the client to swallow
d. instill 30 ml of sterile water into the tube
12. An adult client is being treated in the burn unit for partial and full-thickness burns of the left foot, ankle, and leg. Skin autographs are taken from the right thigh and a skin graft is performed. The nurse planning care for the client on return from the operating room includes which of the following nursing interventions?
a. change dressing on graft sites every shift
b. cover donor site with fine mesh gauze and expose to air
c. lubricate donor site with skin cream every shift
d. hydrotherapy to graft sites daily
13. The nurse is caring for a client who is being transfused for severe gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse can decrease the danger of hypothermia by:
a. administering blood with normal saline
b. administering blood products through a central line
c. giving only packed cells
d. warming blood to body temperature before administering
14. The mother of a three-year-old child calls the clinic and states that her child has just swallowed an unknown amount of baby aspirin. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
a. call the physician
b. instruct the mother to bring the child to the emergency room as soon as possible
c. discuss with the mother observable changes for which she should watch the child
d. tell the mother to give ipecac to the child and then come to the emergency room
15. A 56-year-old is admitted to the burn unit with partial and full-thickness burns of both legs, which occurred when a charcoal grill tipped over on her. The burn area is edematous. Blister formation and a large amount of fluid exudate is noted. Urine output is 30 ml per hour, BP 90/60, and pulses 110. A primary nursing diagnosis during the initial 48-72 hours following the burn is:
a. body image disturbance related to disfiguring burns of both legs
b. high risk for infection related to skin breakdown
c. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to smoke inhalation
d. fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
16. While assessing the client with burns on the back and trunk, the nurse notes areas that are not painful, grayish–white in color, and leathery in appearance. The nurse documents that these burns are:
a. superficial burns
b. superficial partial thickness burns
c. deep partial thickness burns
d. full thickness burns
17. An adult is scheduled for IVP. Before sending her to have the test the nurse should:
a. ask if she is allergic to barium
b. ask is she is allergic to shellfish
c. give her a full glass of water
d. instruct her not to urinate until after the test
18. An adult has received one unit of packed red blood cells after sustaining severe trauma to his legs with profuse bleeding. To evaluate whether the transfusion has been effective the nurse should:
a. take his blood pressure
b. auscultate lung sounds
c. check hemoglobin and hematocrit results
d. take his temperature
19. The nurse is administering tracheostomy care to an adult. Which of the following should be included in the procedure?
a. soaking the outer cannula with saline solution
b. performing the procedure utilizing medical asepsis
c. soaking the inner cannula in half-strength hydrogen peroxide solution
d. cutting a sterile gauze pad to place between the neck and the tracheostomy tube
20. Which of the following teaching should the nurse include when establishing a bowel-training regimen for a 62-year-old with chronic constipation?
a. avoid laxative
b. decrease exercise
c. increase the fiber content of your diet
d. increase fluid intake 4500-5000 ml
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. The nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is essential to decrease the complications associated with catheter insertion?
a. cleanse the female client using betadine-soaked 4x4’s, cleaning from the rectal area to the clitoris
b. utilizing a catheter that is slightly larger than the external urinary meatus
c. utilize clean technique
d. test the retention balloon prior to insertion
2. The nurse is caring for an adult client who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which nursing intervention is essential?
a. encourage large amounts of fluids prior to the test
b. assess for any indications of allergies
c. administer a laxative
d. restrict fluids only in clients with marginal renal reserve or uncontrolled diabetes
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube attached to low wall suction. The suction is not working. Which is the nurse least likely to note when assessing the client?
a. client vomits
b. client has a distended abdomen
c. there is no nasogastric output in the last two hours
d. large amounts of nasogastric output
4. A client who has ascites is admitted to the hospital and will be undergoing a paracentesis. What should be included in the nursing care plan?
a. monitor client closely for evidence of vascular collapse
b. place client in Trendelenburg position for the procedure
c. encourage client to drink plenty of fluids to distend the bladder prior to the procedure
d. have client remain on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure
5. A patient underwent an exploratory laparotomy two days ago. The physician has just written an order for a soft diet. The nurse assessed the client and did not hear bowel sounds in any quadrant. What is the best nursing action?
a. follow the physician’s order and feed the client
b. cancel the physician’s order and make the client NPO
c. order clear liquids for the client
d. notify the physician that the client does not have bowel sounds at this time
6. Your patient is receiving O2 at 2 liters per nasal cannula. His roommate lights a cigarette and tosses the match catching the curtain on fire. What is the priority action for the nurse?
a. turn off the oxygen
b. sound the fire alarm
c. try to extinguish the fire
d. remove the clients from the room
7. An 84-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a complication of immobility?
a. stiffness of the right ankle joint
b. soreness of the gums
c. short term memory loss
d. decreased appetite
8. Which of the following nursing interventions indicate an understanding on the part of the nurse concerning proper care of pressure ulcers?
a. rub reddened skin to increase circulation
b. use a heat lamp 4 times a day to dry the wound surface
c. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with isotonic saline
d. cleanse a non-infected pressure ulcer with povidone-iodine
ANSWER C: A noninfected pressure ulcer should be cleansed gently with a non-ionic cleanser such as isotonic saline to prevent disruption of healing.
9. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
a. masks should be worn with all client contact
b. gloves should be worn for contact with non-intact skin, mucous membranes or soiled items
c. isolation gowns are not needed
d. a private room is always indicated
10. A female client will have to change the dressing on her injured right leg twice a day. The dressing will be a sterile dressing, using 4x4’s, normal saline irrigant, and abdominal pads. Which statement best indicates that the patient understands the importance of maintaining asepsis?
a. “If I drop the 4x4’s on the floor, I can use them as long as they are not soiled.”
b. “If I drop the 4x4's on the floor, I can use them if I rinse them with sterile normal saline.”
c. “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”
d. “I should put on my sterile gloves, then open the bottle of saline to soak the 4x4’s.”
11. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform prior to administering a tube feeding?
a. check for placement by aspirating for gastric contents with a syringe and test pH with Testape
b. advance the tube 3-5 inches prior to the feeding
c. instruct the client to swallow
d. instill 30 ml of sterile water into the tube
12. An adult client is being treated in the burn unit for partial and full-thickness burns of the left foot, ankle, and leg. Skin autographs are taken from the right thigh and a skin graft is performed. The nurse planning care for the client on return from the operating room includes which of the following nursing interventions?
a. change dressing on graft sites every shift
b. cover donor site with fine mesh gauze and expose to air
c. lubricate donor site with skin cream every shift
d. hydrotherapy to graft sites daily
13. The nurse is caring for a client who is being transfused for severe gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse can decrease the danger of hypothermia by:
a. administering blood with normal saline
b. administering blood products through a central line
c. giving only packed cells
d. warming blood to body temperature before administering
14. The mother of a three-year-old child calls the clinic and states that her child has just swallowed an unknown amount of baby aspirin. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
a. call the physician
b. instruct the mother to bring the child to the emergency room as soon as possible
c. discuss with the mother observable changes for which she should watch the child
d. tell the mother to give ipecac to the child and then come to the emergency room
15. A 56-year-old is admitted to the burn unit with partial and full-thickness burns of both legs, which occurred when a charcoal grill tipped over on her. The burn area is edematous. Blister formation and a large amount of fluid exudate is noted. Urine output is 30 ml per hour, BP 90/60, and pulses 110. A primary nursing diagnosis during the initial 48-72 hours following the burn is:
a. body image disturbance related to disfiguring burns of both legs
b. high risk for infection related to skin breakdown
c. potential for ineffective airway clearance related to smoke inhalation
d. fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
16. While assessing the client with burns on the back and trunk, the nurse notes areas that are not painful, grayish–white in color, and leathery in appearance. The nurse documents that these burns are:
a. superficial burns
b. superficial partial thickness burns
c. deep partial thickness burns
d. full thickness burns
17. An adult is scheduled for IVP. Before sending her to have the test the nurse should:
a. ask if she is allergic to barium
b. ask is she is allergic to shellfish
c. give her a full glass of water
d. instruct her not to urinate until after the test
18. An adult has received one unit of packed red blood cells after sustaining severe trauma to his legs with profuse bleeding. To evaluate whether the transfusion has been effective the nurse should:
a. take his blood pressure
b. auscultate lung sounds
c. check hemoglobin and hematocrit results
d. take his temperature
19. The nurse is administering tracheostomy care to an adult. Which of the following should be included in the procedure?
a. soaking the outer cannula with saline solution
b. performing the procedure utilizing medical asepsis
c. soaking the inner cannula in half-strength hydrogen peroxide solution
d. cutting a sterile gauze pad to place between the neck and the tracheostomy tube
20. Which of the following teaching should the nurse include when establishing a bowel-training regimen for a 62-year-old with chronic constipation?
a. avoid laxative
b. decrease exercise
c. increase the fiber content of your diet
d. increase fluid intake 4500-5000 ml
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Sunday, December 8, 2013
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing 1
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET A.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. A staff nurse in the medical ward is preparing to move a male adult client who has right-sided paralysis from the bed to the wheelchair. Which statement describes the best action for the staff nurse to take?
a. position the wheelchair on the left side of the bed
b. keep the head of the bed elevated at 10 degrees
c. protect the client’s left arm with a sling during the transfer
d. bend at the waist while helping the client into a standing position
2. Which statement by the student nurse best indicates a correct understanding of “log rolling” when moving a client?
a. one nurse may perform this task alone
b. pillows are needed for positioning in order to provide support
c. the legs should be moved before the head is moved
d. keeping the neck in a straight position is the primary concern
3. The nurse is caring for a female client who has temperature of 105 F (40.5 C). The physician orders the application of a cooling blanket. Which of the following statements is true about the use of a cooling blanket?
a. cold application will increase the metabolic rate
b. vital signs should be monitored every 8 hours
c. the client should remain in one position to conserve energy
d. skin hygiene and protection of body surface areas is essential
4. A staff nurse of the pediatric wing is preparing to administer a sponge bath to an infant with a high fever. Administration of the bath should include:
a. large amounts of alcohol to increase evaporation of heat
b. adjustment of the water temperature to 60-70 0F
c. wet clothes applied to all areas where blood circulates close to skin surfaces
d. small areas of the body sponged at a time to avoid rapid heat loss
5. The nurse educator of the hospital is instructing the family of a home-bound bedridden client in the general prevention of pressure sores. Measures to include in the teaching include:
a. promoting lifting rather than dragging when turning the client
b. massaging directly over pressure sites
c. changing the client’s position every 4 hours
d. cleaning soiled areas with hot water
6. Which of the following findings would the nurse note when assessing a client with Stage I pressure ulcer? The ulcer displays:
a. superficial skin breakdown
b. deep pink, red, or mottled skin
c. subcutaneous damage or necrosis
d. damage to muscle or bone
7. An adult has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer. He is scheduled to receive wet to dry dressings every shift. The nurse realizes that the purpose of receiving this type of dressing is to:
a. draw in wound exudate and decrease bacteria
b. debride slough and eschar
c. promote healing by gas exchange
d. promote a moist environment and soften exudate
8. The nurse is performing a wound irrigation and dressing change. Which action, when taken by the nurse, would be a break in the technique?
a. consistently facing the sterile field
b. washing hands before opening the sterile set
c. opening the bottle of irrigating solution and pouring directly into a container on the sterile field
d. opening the sterile set so that the initial flap is opened away from the nurse
9. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. The nurse expects the solution will contain all of the following nutrients except:
a. dextrose 10% c. electrolytes
b. trace minerals d. amino acids
10. The nurse caring for an adult client who is receiving TPN will need to monitor him for which of the following metabolic complications:
a. hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
b. hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
c. hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
d. hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia
11. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids. Which observation the nurse makes best indicates the IV has infiltrated?
a. pain at the site
b. a change in flow rate
c. coldness around the insertion site
12. Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. The most appropriate initial response by the nurse is to:
a. force fluids
b. continue to monitor the vital signs
c. increase the flow rate of IV fluids
d. stop the transfusion
13. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
a. continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. fluctuation in the water seal chamber
c. suction tubing attached to a wall unit
d. vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
14. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should:
a. observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours
c. maintain the client in an extreme lateral position
d. strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
15. The nurse enters the room of a client who has a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system and notices the chest tube is dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:
a. notify the physician
b. insert a new chest tube
c. cover the insertion site with petroleum gauze
d. instruct the client to breathe deeply until help arrives
16. A patient is ordered oxygen via nasal prongs. The nurse administering oxygen via this low-flow system recognizes that this method of delivery:
a. mixes room air with oxygen
b. delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
c. requires humidity during delivery
d. is less traumatic to the respiratory tract
17. An adult is receiving oxygen by nasal prongs. Which statement by the client indicates that the client teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective?
a. “I was feeling fine so I removed my nasal prongs.”
b. “I’ve increased my fluids to six glasses of water daily.”
c. “Don’t forget to come back quickly when you get me out of bed; I don’t like to be without my oxygen for too long.”
d. “My family was angry when I told them they could not smoke in my room.”
18. An adult client has a nasogastric tube in place to maintain gastric decompression. Which nursing action will relieve discomfort in the nostril with the NG tube?
a. remove any tape and loosely pin the tube to his gown
b. lubricate the NG tube with viscous xylocaine
c. loop the NG tube to avoid pressure on the nares
d. replace the NG tube with a smaller diameter tube
19. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection and end-to-end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NG tube in the early post-op period to be:
a. Clear
b. Mucoid
c. Scant
d. Discolored
20. The physician inserts a central venous catheter; the nurse should assist the client to assume which of the following positions?
a. supine
b. trendelenburg’s
c. reverse trendelenburg’s
d. high fowler’s
21. The major dietary treatment for ascites calls for:
a. high protein
b. increased potassium
c. restricted fluids
d. restricted sodium
22. The nurse is to give medication to an infant. What is the best way to assess the identity of the infant?
a. ask the mother what the child’s name is
b. look at the sign above the bed that states the client’s name
c. compare the bed number with the bed number of the care plan
d. compare the ankle band with the name on the care plan
23. The nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in cloth wrist restraints. To ensure the client’s safety, the nurse should:
a. remove the restraints every 2 hours and inspect the wrists
b. wrap each wrist with gauze dressing beneath the restraints
c. keep the head of the bed flat at all times
d. tie the restraints using a square knot
24. The nurse is preparing a client for IVP tomorrow. The client ells the nurse that she gets a rash and becomes short of breath after eating lobster. Given this information, the nurse knows that the client:
a. should be visited by a dietitian while in the hospital
b. is not a candidate for IVP
c. is at risk for an allergic reaction
d. will require an antihistamine before her IVP
25. The nurse is caring for a client who is to have a lumbar puncture. How should the client be positioned during the procedure?
a. prone with head turned to the left
b. side lying in a fetal position
c. sitting at the edge of the bed
d. Trendelenburg position
26. An adult client has a central line placed for IV fluids. When the nurse enters the room the IV bag is dry, the IV line is full of air, and the client is dyspneic. What is the best initial nursing action?
a. notify the physician and administer oxygen via nasal cannula immediately
b. hang another IV bag as soon as possible, then remove the air from the IV line
c. clamp the tubing and place the client on the left side with head down
d. begin CPR and call the code team
27. An adult client is to receive a unit of whole blood. The client’s vital signs before starting the transfusion are BP 120/70, P 80, and T 98.40F. Five minutes after the transfusion was started the vital signs are BP 100/70, P100 and T 99.40F. What should the nurse do initially?
a. slow down the rate of the transfusion, reassess the client in 15 minutes
b. stop the transfusion, keep vein open with normal saline
c. slow down the infusion, notify the physician immediately
d. administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), continue to monitor closely throughout the transfusion
28. The nurse is administering medication in an extended care facility. What is the best way for the nurse to correctly identify the client before administering the medications?
a. check with picture identification on the file
b. check the arm band
c. check the name on the bed
d. check the name on the room door
29. A client is scheduled to undergo an exploratory laparotomy in one hour. The nurse has just received the order to administer his pre-operative medication. What assessment is essential for the nurse before administering the medication?
a. the client’s ability to cough and deep breathe
b. any drug hypersensitivity or allergy
c. the patient's understanding of the surgical procedure
d. whether patient's family is present and supportive
30. An adult client has been on bed rest for several months. Which statement best describes the relationship between complications of prolonged bed rest and nursing interventions to prevent these complications?
a. turning and positioning will help decrease the potential for calcium loss from bones
b. adequate fluid intake is vital to decrease the risk of brittle bones
c. leg exercises are important to decrease the loss of calcium from the bones and the risk of pathological fractures
d. encouraging milk intake will help decrease the loss of calcium from the bones
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. A staff nurse in the medical ward is preparing to move a male adult client who has right-sided paralysis from the bed to the wheelchair. Which statement describes the best action for the staff nurse to take?
a. position the wheelchair on the left side of the bed
b. keep the head of the bed elevated at 10 degrees
c. protect the client’s left arm with a sling during the transfer
d. bend at the waist while helping the client into a standing position
2. Which statement by the student nurse best indicates a correct understanding of “log rolling” when moving a client?
a. one nurse may perform this task alone
b. pillows are needed for positioning in order to provide support
c. the legs should be moved before the head is moved
d. keeping the neck in a straight position is the primary concern
3. The nurse is caring for a female client who has temperature of 105 F (40.5 C). The physician orders the application of a cooling blanket. Which of the following statements is true about the use of a cooling blanket?
a. cold application will increase the metabolic rate
b. vital signs should be monitored every 8 hours
c. the client should remain in one position to conserve energy
d. skin hygiene and protection of body surface areas is essential
4. A staff nurse of the pediatric wing is preparing to administer a sponge bath to an infant with a high fever. Administration of the bath should include:
a. large amounts of alcohol to increase evaporation of heat
b. adjustment of the water temperature to 60-70 0F
c. wet clothes applied to all areas where blood circulates close to skin surfaces
d. small areas of the body sponged at a time to avoid rapid heat loss
5. The nurse educator of the hospital is instructing the family of a home-bound bedridden client in the general prevention of pressure sores. Measures to include in the teaching include:
a. promoting lifting rather than dragging when turning the client
b. massaging directly over pressure sites
c. changing the client’s position every 4 hours
d. cleaning soiled areas with hot water
6. Which of the following findings would the nurse note when assessing a client with Stage I pressure ulcer? The ulcer displays:
a. superficial skin breakdown
b. deep pink, red, or mottled skin
c. subcutaneous damage or necrosis
d. damage to muscle or bone
7. An adult has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer. He is scheduled to receive wet to dry dressings every shift. The nurse realizes that the purpose of receiving this type of dressing is to:
a. draw in wound exudate and decrease bacteria
b. debride slough and eschar
c. promote healing by gas exchange
d. promote a moist environment and soften exudate
8. The nurse is performing a wound irrigation and dressing change. Which action, when taken by the nurse, would be a break in the technique?
a. consistently facing the sterile field
b. washing hands before opening the sterile set
c. opening the bottle of irrigating solution and pouring directly into a container on the sterile field
d. opening the sterile set so that the initial flap is opened away from the nurse
9. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. The nurse expects the solution will contain all of the following nutrients except:
a. dextrose 10% c. electrolytes
b. trace minerals d. amino acids
10. The nurse caring for an adult client who is receiving TPN will need to monitor him for which of the following metabolic complications:
a. hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
b. hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
c. hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
d. hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia
11. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids. Which observation the nurse makes best indicates the IV has infiltrated?
a. pain at the site
b. a change in flow rate
c. coldness around the insertion site
12. Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. The most appropriate initial response by the nurse is to:
a. force fluids
b. continue to monitor the vital signs
c. increase the flow rate of IV fluids
d. stop the transfusion
13. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
a. continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. fluctuation in the water seal chamber
c. suction tubing attached to a wall unit
d. vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
14. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should:
a. observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours
c. maintain the client in an extreme lateral position
d. strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
15. The nurse enters the room of a client who has a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system and notices the chest tube is dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:
a. notify the physician
b. insert a new chest tube
c. cover the insertion site with petroleum gauze
d. instruct the client to breathe deeply until help arrives
16. A patient is ordered oxygen via nasal prongs. The nurse administering oxygen via this low-flow system recognizes that this method of delivery:
a. mixes room air with oxygen
b. delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
c. requires humidity during delivery
d. is less traumatic to the respiratory tract
17. An adult is receiving oxygen by nasal prongs. Which statement by the client indicates that the client teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective?
a. “I was feeling fine so I removed my nasal prongs.”
b. “I’ve increased my fluids to six glasses of water daily.”
c. “Don’t forget to come back quickly when you get me out of bed; I don’t like to be without my oxygen for too long.”
d. “My family was angry when I told them they could not smoke in my room.”
18. An adult client has a nasogastric tube in place to maintain gastric decompression. Which nursing action will relieve discomfort in the nostril with the NG tube?
a. remove any tape and loosely pin the tube to his gown
b. lubricate the NG tube with viscous xylocaine
c. loop the NG tube to avoid pressure on the nares
d. replace the NG tube with a smaller diameter tube
19. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection and end-to-end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NG tube in the early post-op period to be:
a. Clear
b. Mucoid
c. Scant
d. Discolored
20. The physician inserts a central venous catheter; the nurse should assist the client to assume which of the following positions?
a. supine
b. trendelenburg’s
c. reverse trendelenburg’s
d. high fowler’s
21. The major dietary treatment for ascites calls for:
a. high protein
b. increased potassium
c. restricted fluids
d. restricted sodium
22. The nurse is to give medication to an infant. What is the best way to assess the identity of the infant?
a. ask the mother what the child’s name is
b. look at the sign above the bed that states the client’s name
c. compare the bed number with the bed number of the care plan
d. compare the ankle band with the name on the care plan
23. The nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in cloth wrist restraints. To ensure the client’s safety, the nurse should:
a. remove the restraints every 2 hours and inspect the wrists
b. wrap each wrist with gauze dressing beneath the restraints
c. keep the head of the bed flat at all times
d. tie the restraints using a square knot
24. The nurse is preparing a client for IVP tomorrow. The client ells the nurse that she gets a rash and becomes short of breath after eating lobster. Given this information, the nurse knows that the client:
a. should be visited by a dietitian while in the hospital
b. is not a candidate for IVP
c. is at risk for an allergic reaction
d. will require an antihistamine before her IVP
25. The nurse is caring for a client who is to have a lumbar puncture. How should the client be positioned during the procedure?
a. prone with head turned to the left
b. side lying in a fetal position
c. sitting at the edge of the bed
d. Trendelenburg position
26. An adult client has a central line placed for IV fluids. When the nurse enters the room the IV bag is dry, the IV line is full of air, and the client is dyspneic. What is the best initial nursing action?
a. notify the physician and administer oxygen via nasal cannula immediately
b. hang another IV bag as soon as possible, then remove the air from the IV line
c. clamp the tubing and place the client on the left side with head down
d. begin CPR and call the code team
27. An adult client is to receive a unit of whole blood. The client’s vital signs before starting the transfusion are BP 120/70, P 80, and T 98.40F. Five minutes after the transfusion was started the vital signs are BP 100/70, P100 and T 99.40F. What should the nurse do initially?
a. slow down the rate of the transfusion, reassess the client in 15 minutes
b. stop the transfusion, keep vein open with normal saline
c. slow down the infusion, notify the physician immediately
d. administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), continue to monitor closely throughout the transfusion
28. The nurse is administering medication in an extended care facility. What is the best way for the nurse to correctly identify the client before administering the medications?
a. check with picture identification on the file
b. check the arm band
c. check the name on the bed
d. check the name on the room door
29. A client is scheduled to undergo an exploratory laparotomy in one hour. The nurse has just received the order to administer his pre-operative medication. What assessment is essential for the nurse before administering the medication?
a. the client’s ability to cough and deep breathe
b. any drug hypersensitivity or allergy
c. the patient's understanding of the surgical procedure
d. whether patient's family is present and supportive
30. An adult client has been on bed rest for several months. Which statement best describes the relationship between complications of prolonged bed rest and nursing interventions to prevent these complications?
a. turning and positioning will help decrease the potential for calcium loss from bones
b. adequate fluid intake is vital to decrease the risk of brittle bones
c. leg exercises are important to decrease the loss of calcium from the bones and the risk of pathological fractures
d. encouraging milk intake will help decrease the loss of calcium from the bones
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