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Showing posts with label DRILLS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label DRILLS. Show all posts
Saturday, April 19, 2014
Youtube Channel
Hello there future nurses.. future colleagues. I've created a youtube channel so i ca post lecture videos on Nursing concepts particularly exam drills with time limit. This can help you gain experience in taking nursing exams under time pressure.
I've uploaded my first video on Fundamentals of Nursing.
Answers will be posted on this site.
Please subscribe in my channel and like my videos. Thanks for your support
I've uploaded my first video on Fundamentals of Nursing.
Answers will be posted on this site.
Please subscribe in my channel and like my videos. Thanks for your support
Sunday, March 30, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill
SITUATION 1: A patient just arrived in the Oncology unit from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) following a Left Modified Radical Mastectomy because of Inflammatory Breast Cancer (IBC). She has a pressure dressing over the surgical site and two drains. Assessment shows her vital signs are stable, fully awake and claims that pain is under control. Fortune is the nurse assigned to the patient.
1. From the following data obtained from the chart by Fortune, which is NOT a risk factor which could have predisposed the patient to breast cancer:
a. Age – 55
b. Height 5’2”, weight 160 lbs.
c. Menarche at age 13
d. Mother died of colon cancer
2. Fortune read a literature which says that by the time Inflammatory Breast Cancer (IBC) is diagnosed, 50% - 75% have palpable auxiliary nodes; as many as 30% have gross distant metastasis; and as few as 30% of patients have an underlying breast mass. Which of the following is the APPROPRIATE interpretation of this research findings.
a. Auxiliary nodes were palpated on 20 out of 30 women positive for IBC3
b. Out of the 20 women who were positive for IBC, only 5 have metastasis
c. If there were 10 women diagnosed with IBC, 3 have positive lymph nodes
d. Breast mass was identified on 8 out of 30 women positive for IBC
3. Fortune recognizes that adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer may include any of the following EXCEPT:
a. Monoclonal antibody
b. Antibiotics
c. Proton inhibitors – this is a drug for ulcer
d. Antiestrogen – tamoxifen
4. Fortune understands that when the antineoplastic agent leaks through the peripheral vascular access during chemotherapy procedure, which of the following is expected to be done FIRST?
a. Refer to the physician
b. Stop the chemotherapy infusion
c. Cleanse site with saline solution
d. Call another nurse to check the intravenous site
5. A clinical trial is currently being undertaken to test treatments for Inflammatory Breast Cancer (IBC). The research team leader wishes to include the patient as a participant in the study. As a patient advocate, which of the following will Fortune do FIRST?
a. Obtain informed consent from the patient
b. Explain to the patient the scope of the clinical trial
c. Inquire from the team leader benefits for the patient
d. Read more related literatures
SITUATION 2: During a staff meeting in the Intensive Care Unit, the nurse manager reported a list of procedures that need to be reviewed and updated. One of these procedures is the precautionary measures related to ventilator associated pneumonia.- on mechanical ventilation through an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube for at least 48 hours
6. While brainstorming, the group mentioned the use of evidence-based techniques. Which of the following statements given by the members of the group reflect evidence-based methods?
a. “Let us ask opinions of experts”
b. “The experiences of the nurses must be obtained”
c. “Review of related literature will be very helpful”
d. “We must agree on a common procedure”
7. The nurse manager assigned a group to develop a project intended to improve the existing procedure related to the prevention of ventilator associated pneumonia among ICU patients. A first team leader was selected by the group. Which of the following will the team leader do FIRST?
a. Tell the group to state their objectives
b. Formulate a list of desired outcomes
c. Set a target
d. State actions to be done by each member of the group
8. Which of the following definitions best describes pneumonia?
A. Inflammation of the large airways
B. Severe infection of the bronchioles
C. Inflammation of the pulmonary parenchyma
D. accumulation of fluids in the lungs
9. The nurse is preparing her plan of care for her patient diagnosed with pneumonia. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Decreased tissue perfusion.
C. Impaired gas exchange.
D. Risk for infection
10. What action should the nurse take in assisting Mr. Ramos in doing deep breathing and coughing exercise?
A. Recognize that the patient is too sick to cough at this time
B. Splint the patient’s chest while he coughs
C. Turn Mr. Ramos to the unaffected side and ask him to cough
D. Encourage her to cough and then give her pain medication as ordered
11. Ms. Sy undergoes surgery and the abdominal aortic aneurysm is resected and replaced with a graft. When she arrives in the RR she is still in shock. The nurse's priority should be
A. placing her in a trendeleburg position
B. putting several warm blankets on her
C. monitoring her hourly urine output
D. assessing her VS especially her RR
12. Ana's postoperative vital signs are a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, a pulse of 140, and respirations of 32. Suspecting shock, which of the following orders would the nurse question?
A. Put the client in modified Trendelenberg's position.
B. Administer oxygen at 100
C. Monitor urine output every hour.
D. Administer Demerol 50mg IM q4h
13. When assessing Luther for hypovolemic shock, which of the following data indicates that he is in IRREVERSIBLE stage of shock?
a. Restless, anxious and confused
b. Anuria
c. Skin, cool, pale and moist- compensatory stage
d. Pulse rapid and weak – reversible stage
14. The physician ordered colloid solution such as Dextran 40. During the infusion, Luther complained of dyspnea. Upon auscultation, you noted wheezes. Which of the following will you do FIRST?
a. Discontinue the infusion
b. Place Luther on a Fowler’s position..
c. Decrease infusion rate
d. Call the attending physician
15. Luther’s central venous pressure is monitored every hour. When you measure the CVP using a water manometer, you are expected to observe which of the following to ensure accuracy of CVP measurement?
a. Maintain the client on a Fowler’s position
b. Use a one way stopcock to regulate flow of IV fluids to the water manometer
c. Immobilize client’s right arm
d. Keep the zero point of the manometer in level with the client’s right atrium
SITUATION 4: You are caring for Warren, 58 years old, who is diagnosed with Laryngeal cancer
16. Warren, who is scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the larynx, asks you, “How will I talk after the surgery?” as his nurse your BEST response will be:
a. “You will breathe through a permanent opening in your neck, but you will not be able to communicate orally”
b. “You won’t be able to talk right after surgery, but you will be able to speak again once the tracheostomy tube is removed”
c. “You will have a permanent opening in your neck, and you will need to have rehabilitation for some type of voice restoration”
d. “You won’t be able to speak as you used to but there are artificial voice devices that will give you the ability to speak normally”
17. Warren returns from surgery with a tracheostomy tube after a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection. In caring for Warren during the first 24 hours after surgery, your PRIORITY nursing action is to:
a. Avoid changing tracheostomy ties
b. Monitor for bleeding around stoma
c. Assess the airway patency and breath sounds
d. Clean the inner cannula every 8 hours
18. After doing assessment, one of the nursing diagnosis you identified is “Body image disturbance related to loss of control of personal care.” To evaluate effectiveness of your interventions, the expected outcome for the problem that Warren should demonstrate is that he:
a. Lets his wife provide hygiene and stoma care
b. Wears clothing that minimizes the disfigurement caused by surgery
c. Asks that only family members be allowed to visit
d. Learns to remove and clean the laryngectomy tube independently
19. Warren is scheduled to start radiation therapy. You have just taught Warren all about radiation therapy. Which of the following statements by Warren would indicate that your teaching has been EFFECTIVE?
a. “I can use lotions to moisturize the skin on my throat”
b. “I will need to buy a water bottle to carry with me”
c. “I need to use alcohol-based mouthwashes to help clean oral ulcers”
d. “I may experience diarrhea, I may have diarrhea until radiation is complete”
20. After completing the discharge instructions for Warren, you determine that ADDITIONAL instruction is needed when he says:
a. “I can participate in most of my prior fitness activities except swimming”
b. “I should wear a Medic Alert Bracelet that identifies me as a neck breather”
c. “I must keep the stoma covered with a loose sterile dressing at all times”
d. “I need to eat nutritious meals even though I can’t smell or taste very well”
Wednesday, March 5, 2014
Anatomy and Physiology Quiz
I. Fluid and Electrolyte and Acid – Base Balance
1. Approximately 60% of the weight of a typical adult consists of fluid. Body fluid is located in two fluid compartments namely what?
a. Intracellular and intravascular
b. Extracellular and intracellular
c. Intracellular and interstitial
d. Extravascular and intracellular
2. When two different solutions are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to the dissolved substances, fluid shifts through the membrane from the region of low solute concentration to the region of high solute concentration until the solutions are of equal concentration. This diffusion of water caused by a fluid concentration gradient is known as what?
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Active Transportation
3. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries tends to filter fluid out of the intravascular compartment into the interstitial fluid. Movement of water and solutes occurs from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to an area of low hydrostatic pressure is known as what?
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Active Transport
4. A patient presented the following signs and symptoms: confusion, muscle cramps and weakness, dry skin, ↑pulse, ↓ BP. The patient’s lab result shows ↓ serum and urine sodium and ↓ urine specific gravity. The doctor told you that the patient is exhibiting hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is having a serum sodium below what? (Smeltzer 2012)
a. 145 mEq/L
b. 108 mEq/L
c. 96.5 mEq/L
d. 135 mEq/L
5. A patient with congestive heart failure is given oral potassium supplements to avoid digoxin toxicity. As a nurse you are aware that the normal serum level for potassium is what? (Smeltzer 2012)
a. 135-145 mEq/L
b. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
c. 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
d. 1.8-2.7 mg/dL
Evaluate the following arterial blood gas values
6. pH: 7.5 PaCO2: 31 HCO3 : 26
7. pH: 7.38 PaCO2: 32 HCO3: 19
8. pH: 7.24 PaCO2: 60 HCO3: 32
9. pH: 7.41 PaCO2: 30 HCO3 18
10. pH: 7.5 PaCO2: 42 HCO3: 33
II. Respiratory System
11. Resting respiration is the result of cyclic excitation of the respiratory muscles by the phrenic nerve. The rhythm of breathing is controlled by respiratory centers in the brain. The inspiratory and expiratory center is located in the?
a. Medulla Oblongata
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pons
d. Cerebellum
12. The _____ center in the lower pons stimulates the inspiratory medullary center to promote deep, prolonged inspirations.
a. Pneumotaxic
b. Apneustic
c. Chemotaxic
d. Physiotaxic
13. A term that correspond the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath.
a. Residual Volume
b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
c. Expiratory Reserve Volume
d. Tidal Volume
14. It is the volume of air in the lungs after maximum inhalation
a. Vital Capacity
b. Inspiratory Capacity
c. Functional Residual Capacity
d. Total Lung Capacity
15. The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration .
a. Vital Capacity
b. Inspiratory Capacity
c. Functional Residual Capacity
d. Total Lung Capacity
III. Cardiovascular System
16. It is the ability of the heart to initiate electrical impulse.
a. Excitability
b. Automaticity
c. Conductivity
d. Permeability
17. It is called as the primary pace maker of the heart which fires 60 to 100 impulse per minute
a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje Fibers
18. The ___ coordinates the incoming electrical impulses from the atria and after a slight delay, allowing the atria time to contract and complete ventricular filling then relays the impulse to the ventricles.
a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje Fibers
19. This heart sound is created by the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valve
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
20. This heart sound is created b the closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
1. Approximately 60% of the weight of a typical adult consists of fluid. Body fluid is located in two fluid compartments namely what?
a. Intracellular and intravascular
b. Extracellular and intracellular
c. Intracellular and interstitial
d. Extravascular and intracellular
2. When two different solutions are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to the dissolved substances, fluid shifts through the membrane from the region of low solute concentration to the region of high solute concentration until the solutions are of equal concentration. This diffusion of water caused by a fluid concentration gradient is known as what?
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Active Transportation
3. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries tends to filter fluid out of the intravascular compartment into the interstitial fluid. Movement of water and solutes occurs from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to an area of low hydrostatic pressure is known as what?
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Active Transport
4. A patient presented the following signs and symptoms: confusion, muscle cramps and weakness, dry skin, ↑pulse, ↓ BP. The patient’s lab result shows ↓ serum and urine sodium and ↓ urine specific gravity. The doctor told you that the patient is exhibiting hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is having a serum sodium below what? (Smeltzer 2012)
a. 145 mEq/L
b. 108 mEq/L
c. 96.5 mEq/L
d. 135 mEq/L
5. A patient with congestive heart failure is given oral potassium supplements to avoid digoxin toxicity. As a nurse you are aware that the normal serum level for potassium is what? (Smeltzer 2012)
a. 135-145 mEq/L
b. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
c. 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
d. 1.8-2.7 mg/dL
Evaluate the following arterial blood gas values
6. pH: 7.5 PaCO2: 31 HCO3 : 26
7. pH: 7.38 PaCO2: 32 HCO3: 19
8. pH: 7.24 PaCO2: 60 HCO3: 32
9. pH: 7.41 PaCO2: 30 HCO3 18
10. pH: 7.5 PaCO2: 42 HCO3: 33
II. Respiratory System
11. Resting respiration is the result of cyclic excitation of the respiratory muscles by the phrenic nerve. The rhythm of breathing is controlled by respiratory centers in the brain. The inspiratory and expiratory center is located in the?
a. Medulla Oblongata
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pons
d. Cerebellum
12. The _____ center in the lower pons stimulates the inspiratory medullary center to promote deep, prolonged inspirations.
a. Pneumotaxic
b. Apneustic
c. Chemotaxic
d. Physiotaxic
13. A term that correspond the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath.
a. Residual Volume
b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
c. Expiratory Reserve Volume
d. Tidal Volume
14. It is the volume of air in the lungs after maximum inhalation
a. Vital Capacity
b. Inspiratory Capacity
c. Functional Residual Capacity
d. Total Lung Capacity
15. The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration .
a. Vital Capacity
b. Inspiratory Capacity
c. Functional Residual Capacity
d. Total Lung Capacity
III. Cardiovascular System
16. It is the ability of the heart to initiate electrical impulse.
a. Excitability
b. Automaticity
c. Conductivity
d. Permeability
17. It is called as the primary pace maker of the heart which fires 60 to 100 impulse per minute
a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje Fibers
18. The ___ coordinates the incoming electrical impulses from the atria and after a slight delay, allowing the atria time to contract and complete ventricular filling then relays the impulse to the ventricles.
a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje Fibers
19. This heart sound is created by the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valve
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
20. This heart sound is created b the closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
Tuesday, February 18, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing C
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET C.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided
4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?
a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants
16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR
17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided
4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?
a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants
16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR
17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
"Try not to become a man of success, but rather try to become a man of value."
Friday, January 31, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing D
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET D.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. Before administering a nasogastric feeding, the nurse aspirate the stomach contents and obtain 50 cc of residual. the next action is to:
a. discard aspirate and begin tube feeding
b. replace aspirate and begin tube feeding
c. discard aspirate and hold the tube feeding
d. replace aspirate and hold the tube feeding
2. You are assigned to a client with a central vein IV infusing hyperalimentation solution. The most important nursing intervention is:
a. preparing the next bottle of solution prior to use
b. maintaining the exact amount of solution administered hourly by adjusting the flow rate
c. checking urine specific gravity, sugar, and acetone every for hours
d. changing the IV filter and tubing with each bottle change
3. You have been assigned to a female patient who needs to have a sterile urine specimen sent to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity. After inserting the catheter, you find that urine is not flowing. Your next action is to:
a. remove the catheter, check the meatus, and reinsert the catheter
b. obtain a new, larger sized catheter and insert it
c. reassess if the catheter is in the vagina; if so, remove it and reinsert into meatus
d. insert the catheter a little farther, wait a few seconds, and if urine does not flow, reassess placement
4. When the urine begins to flow through catheter, your next action is to:
a. inflate the catheter balloon with sterile water
b. place the catheter tip into the specimen container
c. connect the catheter into the drainage tubing
d. place the catheter tip into the urine collection receptacle
5. Following application of a leg cast, you will first check the toes for:
a. increase in temperature
b. change in color
c. edema
d. movement
96. The client is unable to feel you apply pressure on his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate:
a. pressure on a nerve
b. phantom pain syndrome
c. overmedication of an analgesic
d. improper alignment of the fracture
7. From your knowledge of the casting procedure, you understand that a wet cat should be:
a. placed on a firm surface for the first few hours
b. handled only with the palms of the hands
c. left alone to set for at least three hours
d. pelated to lessen chance of irritation to the client
8. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder irrigation, the nurse must use:
a. sterile equipment and wear sterile gloves
b. clean equipment and maintain surgical asepsis
c. sterile equipment and maintain medical asepsis
d. clean equipment and technique
9. Care for a client following a bronchoscopy will include:
a. withholding food and liquids until the gag reflex returns
b. providing throat irrigations every four hours
c. having the client refrain from talking for several days
d. suctioning frequently, as ordered
10. Reviewing the lab tests of a client scheduled for surgery, you find that the white blood cell count is 9800/mm3. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the operating room and cancel the surgery
b. notify the surgeon immediately
c. take on action as your recognize that it is a normal value
d. call the lab and have the test repeated
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The nurse answers the phone in the emergency room, a woman states that she has a nosebleed that has not stopped for the past two hours. The nurse tells her that she should come to the ER immediately but do which of the following first?
a. put pressure on the bridge of the nose for 5 to 30 minutes, applying an icepack and sit with the head forward
b. apply heat to the bridge of the nose and do not eat
c. sit with the head back and use a towel to blot blood drainage
d. when blood is felt in the nose, lightly blow the nose into a tissue
22. A male client has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for the last 10 years. He continues to smoke 2 packs of cigarettes a day. He requires oxygen to perform his daily activities. Which of the following therapeutic management modalities is necessary?
a. low flow of oxygen is usually ordered
b. oxygen flow is adjusted to a higher level if shortness of breath occurs
c. petroleum jelly should be applied around the nares to prevent irritation
d. oxygen flow rate is not a concern since he will feel better if the rate is high
23. Mrs. X has been diagnosed with acute asthma. she has been admitted to the hospital and all of the following instructions to the nurse are correct, except:
a. the head of the bed should be in the high position to facilitate drainage and breathing
b. a cool and dry environment should be maintained
c. air conditioner filter should be changed often
d. oxygen should never be used as it could restrict airways more
24. A female patient has had a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy and pyloroplasty today. She has a nasogastric tube in her nares connected to low intermittent suction. The nurse should take which of the following precautions?
a. do not irrigate or reposition the NG tube because the stomach sutures can be ruptured
b. always use wrist restraints to assure placement of NGT
c. the NG tube should not be taped to the nose
d. expect copious amount of bright red blood from the NG tube postoperatively
25. A man complains of cramping abdominal pain. He has been diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. What nursing interventions are likely to be ordered?
a. increase activity and regular diet as tolerated
b. advise bed rest, clear liquids and meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg IM every 3-4 hours as needed
c. use ice packs on the abdomen and place the client in the trendelenburg position
d. use a K-pad (a temperature controlled heating pad) on the abdomen and allow regular diet as tolerated
26. has been diagnosed with esophageal varices. The physician notes there is active bleeding and orders the nurse to insert NG tube. The nurse should do which of the following?
a. insert the NG tube immediately
b. question the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
c. use copious amount of K-Y jelly to insert the NG tube
d. refuse the order because a varix might be perforated during insertion
27. A 30-year-old patient has been diagnosed with folic acid deficiency. The client asks the nurse which foods are high in folic acid, and the nurse correctly responds:
a. green leafy vegetables, organ meats, nuts and eggs
b. fresh shrimp and oysters
c. dried fruits and oatmeal
d. tofu and tuna
28. Which of the following is an example of pica?
a. a craving for sweets
b. a craving for laundry starch and ice
c. a craving for shellfish
d. craving for pickles
29. An 82-year-old woman living in a long-term care facility develops urinary incontinence. After ruling out the presence of urinary retention or a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse should:
a. establish a 3-hour prompted voiding schedule
b. insert a foley catheter or teach the client to self-catheterize
c. restrict her fluid intake to 1500 ml/day
d. use adult diapers and change them frequently
30. Client education for the individual with gout includes:
a. dietary instructions to limit meat, poultry, organ meats and alcohol
b. dietary instructions to limit complex carbohydrates such as flat bread, rice and pasta
c. instructions for proper cast care
d. signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, a major complication
“If A is a success in life, then A equals x plus y plus z. Work is x; y is play; and z is keeping your mouth shut” - A. Eistein
Wednesday, January 29, 2014
Pre-Board Exam Dill: Fundamentals of Nursing C
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET C.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. When a client responds to a crisis situation or an acute injury, the sympathetic nervous system will respond in which of the following ways?
a. it will increase blood flow to the abdominal organs
b. it will decrease blood flow to the vital organs
c. it will stimulate the adrenals to release epinephrine
2. During the clonic phase of a generalized seizure, you may expect to see:
a. pupil dilatation, tachycardia and muscle spasms
b. bladder incontinence, elevated blood pressure and diaphoresis
c. loss of consciousness, cessation of breathing and cyanosis
d. contracted throat muscles, hyperventilation and salivation
3. The physician orders ice for the scrotum of a client diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse correctly assumes that:
a. ice slows circulation and decreases peripheral edema
b. ice should be applied in intervals, not continuously
c. ice is placed on the scrotum continuously until the physician orders otherwise
d. ice will not stop the pain, and it has a placebo effect
4. The best time for menstruating women to perform a breast self-examination is:
a. right before the menstrual period
b. during the menstrual period
c. a few days after the menstrual period
d. 14 days after the menstrual period
5. Which of the following procedures is most effective for preventing hemolytic blood transfusion reactions?
a. administer the blood through 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
b. administration of a steroid prior to the transfusion
c. careful identification of the client and the blood product
d. using a leukocyte-poor filter during the transfusion
6. A superficial partial-thickness burn should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. two months
Answer A: Healing of superficial partial-thickness burns usually occurs within a week.
7. The setting that is most suitable for the treatment of a client with a full thickness burn is:
a. admission to a burn unit
b. admission to a medical unit
c. treatment in an emergency room or ambulatory care setting
d. home health care
Answer A: Full-thickness burns usually require hospitalization in a burn unit with comprehensive care by a burn team. The age of a client and the body area involved determine the need for emergency attention.
8. A full thickness burn would appear:
a. red, as if client were sunburned
b. bright red and weeping fluid
c. mottled without weeping fluid
d. brown and leather-like
9. In a patient with full thickness burn of the face, the nurse must immediately address:
a. airway management and hypovolemic shock
b. moderate discomfort and minor fluid loss
c. pain management with intravenous morphine
d. wound care
10. A full thickness burn of the face should heal in:
a. one week c. six weeks
b. three weeks d. months
11. If the client with psoriasis complains about pruritus, the nurse should suggest using:
a. drying soaps or agents
b. hot water when bathing
c. emollient lubricants
d. a towel to provide vigorous drying after bathing
12. You are supervising a student nurse giving an IM injection to a client with right hip arthroplasty. You will know the SN requires further instruction if she:
a. administers the injection in the left deltoid muscle
b. turns the client on her right hip to administer the injection
c. keeps the abduction pillow in place and turns the client 10 degrees to administer the injection on the unaffected side
d. administers the injection after turning the client to her left thigh, keeping the abduction pillow in place
13. You are assisting a client to choose a meal that follows his dietary orders of high calorie, high protein, decreased sodium, and low potassium. You will know the understands his dietary guidelines when he chooses:
a. crab, beets and spinach, baked potato, and milk
b. halibut, salad, rice, and instant coffee
c. sirloin steak, salad, baked potato with butter, and chocolate ice cream
d. salmon, rice, green beans, sourdough bread, coffee, and ice cream
14. The best rationale for introducing your-self to a blind client and telling him exactly what you are doing is that these actions:
a. illustrate the principle of open communication
b. decrease the client’s anxiety and fear of the unknown
c. are the accepted procedure for beginning a nurse-client relationship
d. encourage and utilize clear communication
15. Sitting down at the client’s bedside to talk with the client with convey a sense of:
a. sympathy
b. communication
c. empathy
d. encouragement
16. While assessing a client who has orders for a hot-water bottle, heating pad, or hot compress, the first sign of possible thermal injury is:
a. tingling sensation in the extremities c. edema
b. redness in the are d. pain
17. When charting the procedure for applying restraints to a client, you will include:
a. what the client says about the restraint
b. procedure for applying the restraint
c. physician’s orders regarding the restraint
d. condition of the extremity following application
18. To perform the skill “turning to the side-lying position,” you would lower the head of the bed, elevate bed to working height, move client to your side of the bed, and flex client’s knees. The next intervention, would be to:
a. roll the client on his side
b. reposition client
c. place one hand on client’s hip and other on shoulder
d. reposition client’s arms so they are not under his body
19. Your client insists on being discharged from the hospital against medical advice. From a legal standpoint, the most important nursing action is to:
a. notify the supervisor and hospital administration
b. determine exactly why the client wants to leave
c. put all appropriate forms in the client’s chart before he leaves the hospital
d. request that the client sign the against medical advice (AMA) form
20. You are moving the client from the bed to a chair. The first appropriate intervention is to:
a. dangle the client at his bedside
b. put nonslip shoes or slippers on client’s feet
c. rock the client and pivot
d. position client so that he is comfortable.
21. The primary purpose of client education is to:
a. collect client data
b. determine readiness to learn
c. assess degree of compliance
d. increase client’s knowledge that will affect health status
22. Your initial instruction to a client on the use of crutches to move upstairs should be to:
a. start with crutches and the unaffected leg on the same level
b. start with crutches and the affected leg on the same level
c. place crutches on the step after the affected leg is moved up the stair
d. place crutches on the stair and then move the affected leg to the stair
23. When a client experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction to a medication, your initial action is to:
a. start an IV
b. assess vital signs
c. place the client in a supine position
d. prepare equipment for intubation
24. If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first intervention is to:
a. place the client in high-fowler’s position
b. call the physician
c. slow the rate of transfusion to “keep open” rate
d. shut off the transfusion
25. The correct action for instilling eye drops is to instill the drops:
a. at the outer canthus of the eye
b. over the conjunctiva
c. directly on the cornea
d. into the center of conjunctival sac
26. Assessing a client for hypovolemic shock, the sign that you would expect to note if this complication occurs is:
a. hypertension
b. cyanosis
c. oliguria
d. tachypnea
27. When evaluating the client’s understanding of a low potassium diet, you will know he understands if he tells you that he will avoid:
a. pasta
b. raw apples
c. dry cereal
d. french bread
28. Irrigating a nasogastric tube should be carried out using which one of the following protocols?
a. gently instill 20 cc normal saline and then withdraw solution
b. instill 30 cc sterile water and then withdraw solution
c. instill 30 cc sterile saline, forcefully if necessary, and allow fluid to flow into basin for return
d. gently instill 20 cc sterile water and then allow fluid to flow into basin for return
29. The morning of the second postoperative day, a female patient is to be ambulated. Your first intervention is to:
a. get her up in a chair
b. use a walker when getting her up
c. have her put minimal weight on the affected side
d. practice getting her out of bed by slightly flexing her lips
30. You are assigned a client who has just had a nasogastric tube inserted postoperatively. During your evaluation of his status, you will check for:
a. electrolyte imbalance
b. gastric distention
c. ulcerative colitis
d. infection
Sunday, December 8, 2013
Pre-Board Exam Drill: Fundamentals of Nursing 1
This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Fundamentals of Nursing SET A.
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. A staff nurse in the medical ward is preparing to move a male adult client who has right-sided paralysis from the bed to the wheelchair. Which statement describes the best action for the staff nurse to take?
a. position the wheelchair on the left side of the bed
b. keep the head of the bed elevated at 10 degrees
c. protect the client’s left arm with a sling during the transfer
d. bend at the waist while helping the client into a standing position
2. Which statement by the student nurse best indicates a correct understanding of “log rolling” when moving a client?
a. one nurse may perform this task alone
b. pillows are needed for positioning in order to provide support
c. the legs should be moved before the head is moved
d. keeping the neck in a straight position is the primary concern
3. The nurse is caring for a female client who has temperature of 105 F (40.5 C). The physician orders the application of a cooling blanket. Which of the following statements is true about the use of a cooling blanket?
a. cold application will increase the metabolic rate
b. vital signs should be monitored every 8 hours
c. the client should remain in one position to conserve energy
d. skin hygiene and protection of body surface areas is essential
4. A staff nurse of the pediatric wing is preparing to administer a sponge bath to an infant with a high fever. Administration of the bath should include:
a. large amounts of alcohol to increase evaporation of heat
b. adjustment of the water temperature to 60-70 0F
c. wet clothes applied to all areas where blood circulates close to skin surfaces
d. small areas of the body sponged at a time to avoid rapid heat loss
5. The nurse educator of the hospital is instructing the family of a home-bound bedridden client in the general prevention of pressure sores. Measures to include in the teaching include:
a. promoting lifting rather than dragging when turning the client
b. massaging directly over pressure sites
c. changing the client’s position every 4 hours
d. cleaning soiled areas with hot water
6. Which of the following findings would the nurse note when assessing a client with Stage I pressure ulcer? The ulcer displays:
a. superficial skin breakdown
b. deep pink, red, or mottled skin
c. subcutaneous damage or necrosis
d. damage to muscle or bone
7. An adult has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer. He is scheduled to receive wet to dry dressings every shift. The nurse realizes that the purpose of receiving this type of dressing is to:
a. draw in wound exudate and decrease bacteria
b. debride slough and eschar
c. promote healing by gas exchange
d. promote a moist environment and soften exudate
8. The nurse is performing a wound irrigation and dressing change. Which action, when taken by the nurse, would be a break in the technique?
a. consistently facing the sterile field
b. washing hands before opening the sterile set
c. opening the bottle of irrigating solution and pouring directly into a container on the sterile field
d. opening the sterile set so that the initial flap is opened away from the nurse
9. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. The nurse expects the solution will contain all of the following nutrients except:
a. dextrose 10% c. electrolytes
b. trace minerals d. amino acids
10. The nurse caring for an adult client who is receiving TPN will need to monitor him for which of the following metabolic complications:
a. hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
b. hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
c. hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
d. hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia
11. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids. Which observation the nurse makes best indicates the IV has infiltrated?
a. pain at the site
b. a change in flow rate
c. coldness around the insertion site
12. Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. The most appropriate initial response by the nurse is to:
a. force fluids
b. continue to monitor the vital signs
c. increase the flow rate of IV fluids
d. stop the transfusion
13. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
a. continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. fluctuation in the water seal chamber
c. suction tubing attached to a wall unit
d. vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
14. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should:
a. observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours
c. maintain the client in an extreme lateral position
d. strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
15. The nurse enters the room of a client who has a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system and notices the chest tube is dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:
a. notify the physician
b. insert a new chest tube
c. cover the insertion site with petroleum gauze
d. instruct the client to breathe deeply until help arrives
16. A patient is ordered oxygen via nasal prongs. The nurse administering oxygen via this low-flow system recognizes that this method of delivery:
a. mixes room air with oxygen
b. delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
c. requires humidity during delivery
d. is less traumatic to the respiratory tract
17. An adult is receiving oxygen by nasal prongs. Which statement by the client indicates that the client teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective?
a. “I was feeling fine so I removed my nasal prongs.”
b. “I’ve increased my fluids to six glasses of water daily.”
c. “Don’t forget to come back quickly when you get me out of bed; I don’t like to be without my oxygen for too long.”
d. “My family was angry when I told them they could not smoke in my room.”
18. An adult client has a nasogastric tube in place to maintain gastric decompression. Which nursing action will relieve discomfort in the nostril with the NG tube?
a. remove any tape and loosely pin the tube to his gown
b. lubricate the NG tube with viscous xylocaine
c. loop the NG tube to avoid pressure on the nares
d. replace the NG tube with a smaller diameter tube
19. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection and end-to-end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NG tube in the early post-op period to be:
a. Clear
b. Mucoid
c. Scant
d. Discolored
20. The physician inserts a central venous catheter; the nurse should assist the client to assume which of the following positions?
a. supine
b. trendelenburg’s
c. reverse trendelenburg’s
d. high fowler’s
21. The major dietary treatment for ascites calls for:
a. high protein
b. increased potassium
c. restricted fluids
d. restricted sodium
22. The nurse is to give medication to an infant. What is the best way to assess the identity of the infant?
a. ask the mother what the child’s name is
b. look at the sign above the bed that states the client’s name
c. compare the bed number with the bed number of the care plan
d. compare the ankle band with the name on the care plan
23. The nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in cloth wrist restraints. To ensure the client’s safety, the nurse should:
a. remove the restraints every 2 hours and inspect the wrists
b. wrap each wrist with gauze dressing beneath the restraints
c. keep the head of the bed flat at all times
d. tie the restraints using a square knot
24. The nurse is preparing a client for IVP tomorrow. The client ells the nurse that she gets a rash and becomes short of breath after eating lobster. Given this information, the nurse knows that the client:
a. should be visited by a dietitian while in the hospital
b. is not a candidate for IVP
c. is at risk for an allergic reaction
d. will require an antihistamine before her IVP
25. The nurse is caring for a client who is to have a lumbar puncture. How should the client be positioned during the procedure?
a. prone with head turned to the left
b. side lying in a fetal position
c. sitting at the edge of the bed
d. Trendelenburg position
26. An adult client has a central line placed for IV fluids. When the nurse enters the room the IV bag is dry, the IV line is full of air, and the client is dyspneic. What is the best initial nursing action?
a. notify the physician and administer oxygen via nasal cannula immediately
b. hang another IV bag as soon as possible, then remove the air from the IV line
c. clamp the tubing and place the client on the left side with head down
d. begin CPR and call the code team
27. An adult client is to receive a unit of whole blood. The client’s vital signs before starting the transfusion are BP 120/70, P 80, and T 98.40F. Five minutes after the transfusion was started the vital signs are BP 100/70, P100 and T 99.40F. What should the nurse do initially?
a. slow down the rate of the transfusion, reassess the client in 15 minutes
b. stop the transfusion, keep vein open with normal saline
c. slow down the infusion, notify the physician immediately
d. administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), continue to monitor closely throughout the transfusion
28. The nurse is administering medication in an extended care facility. What is the best way for the nurse to correctly identify the client before administering the medications?
a. check with picture identification on the file
b. check the arm band
c. check the name on the bed
d. check the name on the room door
29. A client is scheduled to undergo an exploratory laparotomy in one hour. The nurse has just received the order to administer his pre-operative medication. What assessment is essential for the nurse before administering the medication?
a. the client’s ability to cough and deep breathe
b. any drug hypersensitivity or allergy
c. the patient's understanding of the surgical procedure
d. whether patient's family is present and supportive
30. An adult client has been on bed rest for several months. Which statement best describes the relationship between complications of prolonged bed rest and nursing interventions to prevent these complications?
a. turning and positioning will help decrease the potential for calcium loss from bones
b. adequate fluid intake is vital to decrease the risk of brittle bones
c. leg exercises are important to decrease the loss of calcium from the bones and the risk of pathological fractures
d. encouraging milk intake will help decrease the loss of calcium from the bones
Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!
1. A staff nurse in the medical ward is preparing to move a male adult client who has right-sided paralysis from the bed to the wheelchair. Which statement describes the best action for the staff nurse to take?
a. position the wheelchair on the left side of the bed
b. keep the head of the bed elevated at 10 degrees
c. protect the client’s left arm with a sling during the transfer
d. bend at the waist while helping the client into a standing position
2. Which statement by the student nurse best indicates a correct understanding of “log rolling” when moving a client?
a. one nurse may perform this task alone
b. pillows are needed for positioning in order to provide support
c. the legs should be moved before the head is moved
d. keeping the neck in a straight position is the primary concern
3. The nurse is caring for a female client who has temperature of 105 F (40.5 C). The physician orders the application of a cooling blanket. Which of the following statements is true about the use of a cooling blanket?
a. cold application will increase the metabolic rate
b. vital signs should be monitored every 8 hours
c. the client should remain in one position to conserve energy
d. skin hygiene and protection of body surface areas is essential
4. A staff nurse of the pediatric wing is preparing to administer a sponge bath to an infant with a high fever. Administration of the bath should include:
a. large amounts of alcohol to increase evaporation of heat
b. adjustment of the water temperature to 60-70 0F
c. wet clothes applied to all areas where blood circulates close to skin surfaces
d. small areas of the body sponged at a time to avoid rapid heat loss
5. The nurse educator of the hospital is instructing the family of a home-bound bedridden client in the general prevention of pressure sores. Measures to include in the teaching include:
a. promoting lifting rather than dragging when turning the client
b. massaging directly over pressure sites
c. changing the client’s position every 4 hours
d. cleaning soiled areas with hot water
6. Which of the following findings would the nurse note when assessing a client with Stage I pressure ulcer? The ulcer displays:
a. superficial skin breakdown
b. deep pink, red, or mottled skin
c. subcutaneous damage or necrosis
d. damage to muscle or bone
7. An adult has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer. He is scheduled to receive wet to dry dressings every shift. The nurse realizes that the purpose of receiving this type of dressing is to:
a. draw in wound exudate and decrease bacteria
b. debride slough and eschar
c. promote healing by gas exchange
d. promote a moist environment and soften exudate
8. The nurse is performing a wound irrigation and dressing change. Which action, when taken by the nurse, would be a break in the technique?
a. consistently facing the sterile field
b. washing hands before opening the sterile set
c. opening the bottle of irrigating solution and pouring directly into a container on the sterile field
d. opening the sterile set so that the initial flap is opened away from the nurse
9. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. The nurse expects the solution will contain all of the following nutrients except:
a. dextrose 10% c. electrolytes
b. trace minerals d. amino acids
10. The nurse caring for an adult client who is receiving TPN will need to monitor him for which of the following metabolic complications:
a. hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
b. hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
c. hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
d. hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia
11. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids. Which observation the nurse makes best indicates the IV has infiltrated?
a. pain at the site
b. a change in flow rate
c. coldness around the insertion site
12. Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. The most appropriate initial response by the nurse is to:
a. force fluids
b. continue to monitor the vital signs
c. increase the flow rate of IV fluids
d. stop the transfusion
13. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
a. continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. fluctuation in the water seal chamber
c. suction tubing attached to a wall unit
d. vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
14. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should:
a. observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
b. flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours
c. maintain the client in an extreme lateral position
d. strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
15. The nurse enters the room of a client who has a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system and notices the chest tube is dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:
a. notify the physician
b. insert a new chest tube
c. cover the insertion site with petroleum gauze
d. instruct the client to breathe deeply until help arrives
16. A patient is ordered oxygen via nasal prongs. The nurse administering oxygen via this low-flow system recognizes that this method of delivery:
a. mixes room air with oxygen
b. delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
c. requires humidity during delivery
d. is less traumatic to the respiratory tract
17. An adult is receiving oxygen by nasal prongs. Which statement by the client indicates that the client teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective?
a. “I was feeling fine so I removed my nasal prongs.”
b. “I’ve increased my fluids to six glasses of water daily.”
c. “Don’t forget to come back quickly when you get me out of bed; I don’t like to be without my oxygen for too long.”
d. “My family was angry when I told them they could not smoke in my room.”
18. An adult client has a nasogastric tube in place to maintain gastric decompression. Which nursing action will relieve discomfort in the nostril with the NG tube?
a. remove any tape and loosely pin the tube to his gown
b. lubricate the NG tube with viscous xylocaine
c. loop the NG tube to avoid pressure on the nares
d. replace the NG tube with a smaller diameter tube
19. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection and end-to-end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NG tube in the early post-op period to be:
a. Clear
b. Mucoid
c. Scant
d. Discolored
20. The physician inserts a central venous catheter; the nurse should assist the client to assume which of the following positions?
a. supine
b. trendelenburg’s
c. reverse trendelenburg’s
d. high fowler’s
21. The major dietary treatment for ascites calls for:
a. high protein
b. increased potassium
c. restricted fluids
d. restricted sodium
22. The nurse is to give medication to an infant. What is the best way to assess the identity of the infant?
a. ask the mother what the child’s name is
b. look at the sign above the bed that states the client’s name
c. compare the bed number with the bed number of the care plan
d. compare the ankle band with the name on the care plan
23. The nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in cloth wrist restraints. To ensure the client’s safety, the nurse should:
a. remove the restraints every 2 hours and inspect the wrists
b. wrap each wrist with gauze dressing beneath the restraints
c. keep the head of the bed flat at all times
d. tie the restraints using a square knot
24. The nurse is preparing a client for IVP tomorrow. The client ells the nurse that she gets a rash and becomes short of breath after eating lobster. Given this information, the nurse knows that the client:
a. should be visited by a dietitian while in the hospital
b. is not a candidate for IVP
c. is at risk for an allergic reaction
d. will require an antihistamine before her IVP
25. The nurse is caring for a client who is to have a lumbar puncture. How should the client be positioned during the procedure?
a. prone with head turned to the left
b. side lying in a fetal position
c. sitting at the edge of the bed
d. Trendelenburg position
26. An adult client has a central line placed for IV fluids. When the nurse enters the room the IV bag is dry, the IV line is full of air, and the client is dyspneic. What is the best initial nursing action?
a. notify the physician and administer oxygen via nasal cannula immediately
b. hang another IV bag as soon as possible, then remove the air from the IV line
c. clamp the tubing and place the client on the left side with head down
d. begin CPR and call the code team
27. An adult client is to receive a unit of whole blood. The client’s vital signs before starting the transfusion are BP 120/70, P 80, and T 98.40F. Five minutes after the transfusion was started the vital signs are BP 100/70, P100 and T 99.40F. What should the nurse do initially?
a. slow down the rate of the transfusion, reassess the client in 15 minutes
b. stop the transfusion, keep vein open with normal saline
c. slow down the infusion, notify the physician immediately
d. administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), continue to monitor closely throughout the transfusion
28. The nurse is administering medication in an extended care facility. What is the best way for the nurse to correctly identify the client before administering the medications?
a. check with picture identification on the file
b. check the arm band
c. check the name on the bed
d. check the name on the room door
29. A client is scheduled to undergo an exploratory laparotomy in one hour. The nurse has just received the order to administer his pre-operative medication. What assessment is essential for the nurse before administering the medication?
a. the client’s ability to cough and deep breathe
b. any drug hypersensitivity or allergy
c. the patient's understanding of the surgical procedure
d. whether patient's family is present and supportive
30. An adult client has been on bed rest for several months. Which statement best describes the relationship between complications of prolonged bed rest and nursing interventions to prevent these complications?
a. turning and positioning will help decrease the potential for calcium loss from bones
b. adequate fluid intake is vital to decrease the risk of brittle bones
c. leg exercises are important to decrease the loss of calcium from the bones and the risk of pathological fractures
d. encouraging milk intake will help decrease the loss of calcium from the bones
Thursday, December 5, 2013
NCLEX-RN DRILL: MEDICAL SURGICAL CARDIOVASCULAR C
Medical Surgical Nursing is a very broad area in the field of Nursing for it tackles the management of different client condition. Books in Medical Surgical Nursing are usually divided according to the Organ System of the Human Body. The Cardiovascular System is one of the most difficult areas to study and to master since any deviation in this system will affect every organ system. Mastery is needed to be able to answer board type questions pertaining to Cardiovascualr System.
1. A client with no history of cardiovascular disease comes to the ambulatory clinic with flu-like symptoms. The client suddenly complains of chest pain. Which of the following questions would best help a nurse discriminate pain caused by a noncardiac problem?
1. “Can you describe the pain to me?”
2. “Have you ever had this pain before?”
3. “Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?”
4. “Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?”
2. A client is admitted to an emergency room with chest pain that is being ruled out for myocardial infarction. Vital signs are as follows: at 11 am, pulse (P), 92 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 140/88 mm Hg; 11:15 am, P, 96 beats/min, RR, 26 breaths/min, BP, 128/82 mm Hg; 11:30 am, P, 104 beats/min, RR, 28 breaths/min, BP, 104/68 mm Hg; 11:45 am, P, 118 beats/min, RR, 32 breaths/min, BP, 88/58 mm Hg. The nurse should alert the physician because these changes are most consistent with which of the following complications?
1. Cardiogenic shock
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm
3. A client with myocardial infarction has been transferred from a coronary care unit to a general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. A nurse plans to allow for which of the following client activities?
1. Strict bed rest for 24 hours after transfer
2. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
3. Ad lib activities because the client is monitored
4. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances under 200 feet
4. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and history of type II diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which of the following medications would need to be held for 48 hours before and after the procedure?
1. Regular insulin
2. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
3. Repaglinide (Prandin)
4. Metformin (Glucophage)
5. A client is in sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 45 beats/min, complains of dizziness, and has a blood pressure of 82/60 mmHg. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
1. Defibrillate the client.
2. Administer digoxin (Lanoxin).
3. Continue to monitor the client.
4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.
6. A nurse notes bilateral 12 edema in the lower extremities of a client with myocardial infarction who was admitted 2 days ago. The nurse would plan to do which of the following next?
1. Order daily weights starting on the following morning.
2. Review the intake and output records for the last 2 days.
3. Request a sodium restriction of 1 g/day from the physician
4. Change the time of diuretic administration from morning to evening.
7. A nurse is conducting a health history of a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following disorders reported by the client is unlikely to play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Nutritional anemia
3. Peptic ulcer disease
4. Recent upper respiratory infection
8. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds?
1. Stridor
2. Crackles
3. Scattered rhonchi
4. Diminished breath sounds
9. A client who has developed severe pulmonary edema would most likely exhibit which of the following?
1. Mild anxiety
2. Slight anxiety
3. Extreme anxiety
4. Moderate anxiety
10. A client with pulmonary edema has been on diuretic therapy. The client has an order for additional furosemide (Lasix) in the amount of 40 mg intravenous push. Knowing that the client will also be started on digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse should review which laboratory result?
1. Sodium level
2. Digoxin level
3. Creatinine level
4. Potassium level
1. A client with no history of cardiovascular disease comes to the ambulatory clinic with flu-like symptoms. The client suddenly complains of chest pain. Which of the following questions would best help a nurse discriminate pain caused by a noncardiac problem?
1. “Can you describe the pain to me?”
2. “Have you ever had this pain before?”
3. “Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?”
4. “Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?”
2. A client is admitted to an emergency room with chest pain that is being ruled out for myocardial infarction. Vital signs are as follows: at 11 am, pulse (P), 92 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR), 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP), 140/88 mm Hg; 11:15 am, P, 96 beats/min, RR, 26 breaths/min, BP, 128/82 mm Hg; 11:30 am, P, 104 beats/min, RR, 28 breaths/min, BP, 104/68 mm Hg; 11:45 am, P, 118 beats/min, RR, 32 breaths/min, BP, 88/58 mm Hg. The nurse should alert the physician because these changes are most consistent with which of the following complications?
1. Cardiogenic shock
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm
3. A client with myocardial infarction has been transferred from a coronary care unit to a general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. A nurse plans to allow for which of the following client activities?
1. Strict bed rest for 24 hours after transfer
2. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
3. Ad lib activities because the client is monitored
4. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances under 200 feet
4. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and history of type II diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which of the following medications would need to be held for 48 hours before and after the procedure?
1. Regular insulin
2. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
3. Repaglinide (Prandin)
4. Metformin (Glucophage)
5. A client is in sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 45 beats/min, complains of dizziness, and has a blood pressure of 82/60 mmHg. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
1. Defibrillate the client.
2. Administer digoxin (Lanoxin).
3. Continue to monitor the client.
4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.
6. A nurse notes bilateral 12 edema in the lower extremities of a client with myocardial infarction who was admitted 2 days ago. The nurse would plan to do which of the following next?
1. Order daily weights starting on the following morning.
2. Review the intake and output records for the last 2 days.
3. Request a sodium restriction of 1 g/day from the physician
4. Change the time of diuretic administration from morning to evening.
7. A nurse is conducting a health history of a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following disorders reported by the client is unlikely to play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Nutritional anemia
3. Peptic ulcer disease
4. Recent upper respiratory infection
8. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds?
1. Stridor
2. Crackles
3. Scattered rhonchi
4. Diminished breath sounds
9. A client who has developed severe pulmonary edema would most likely exhibit which of the following?
1. Mild anxiety
2. Slight anxiety
3. Extreme anxiety
4. Moderate anxiety
10. A client with pulmonary edema has been on diuretic therapy. The client has an order for additional furosemide (Lasix) in the amount of 40 mg intravenous push. Knowing that the client will also be started on digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse should review which laboratory result?
1. Sodium level
2. Digoxin level
3. Creatinine level
4. Potassium level
Tuesday, December 3, 2013
NCLEX-RN DRILL: MEDICAL SURGICAL CARDIOVASCULAR B
Medical Surgical Nursing is a very broad area in the field of Nursing for it tackles the management of different client condition. Books in Medical Surgical Nursing are usually divided according to the Organ System of the Human Body. The Cardiovascular System is one of the most difficult areas to study and to master since any deviation in this system will affect every organ system. Mastery is needed to be able to answer board type questions pertaining to Cardiovascualr System.
1. The nurse realizes that more teaching is needed when the client on a cardiac low-cholesterol diet makes which choice from the menu?
a. Stewed chicken, green beans, and noodles
b. Liver and onions, salad with ranch dressing, and milk
c. Ham and bean soup, salad with vinaigrette dressing, and cornbread
d. Pork roast, brown rice, and beets
2. When taking a client’s medical history, which are the precipitating factors for myocardial infarction?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Rheumatic fever
e. Elevated serum iron level
f. High density lipids 40 mg
g. Using oral contraceptives
3. When the nurse performs an admission assessment on a client, the nurse notes that the client has xanthomas present on both eyelids. The laboratory value that the nurse would want to check based on this assessment finding is
a. triglyceride level
b. homocystine level
c. cardiac enzymes—CPK-MB, troponin, and myoglobin
d. cholesterol panel
4. A client presents to the clinic with the following symptoms: a burning sensation in the lower extremities, thickened toe nails, and pain in legs when walking. The nurse would assess the client for which additional factor consistent with Burger’s disease (thromboangitis obliterans)?
a. Bounding peripheral pulses
b. Rubor when the extremities are elevated
c. Intolerance to heat
d. Symptoms triggered by stress
5. A goal for a client with arteriosclerosis obliterans is to increase arterial blood supply to the extremities. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate for this goal?
a. Elevate the extremities above the level of the heart for 15 minutes four times a day.
b. Have client perform Buerger-Allen exercises four times a day.
c. Maintain client on bed rest with legs in a neutral position.
d. Position client in high-Fowler’s position with legs straight.
6. Which of the following assessment findings are consistent with the diagnosis of venous stasis?
a. Absent or diminished peripheral pulses
b. Hair loss on the extremity
c. Moist ulcers around the malleolus
d. Edema of the extremity
e. Coolness of the extremity
f. Leathery quality of the extremity
g. Pallor of the extremity
7. A client is returned to the unit after having a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The nurse should place the client in which of the following positions?
a. High-Fowler’s
b. Sims
c. Semi-Fowler’s
d. Flat
8. The nurse is giving a client low molecular weight heparin, enoxaparin. The correct nursing interventions when administering this medication include all of the following except
a. using a TB syringe
b. injecting the medicine using Z-track method
c. not rubbing the site postinjection
d. administering the medicine in the anterolateral abdominal wall
9. In order to prevent the postoperative complication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has had mitral valve replacement, the nurse would have the client engage in which of the following activities?
a. Perform dorsiflexion of the feet several times every hour while awake
b. Cough and take deep breaths every hour while awake
c. Sit up in a chair for several hours during the afternoon
d. Eat a high-fiber, high-calorie diet
10. The nurse is caring for a client who has just arrived on the unit following a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following assessments would be most immediate?
a. Heart and lung sounds
b. Pain at the catheter insertion site
c. Pulses distal to the insertion site
d. Urine output
11. A client comes into the ER complaining of “his heart racing.” Cardiac monitor shows atrial tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 190 bpm. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order adenosine (Adenocard) to be given. Prior to giving the medication the nurse should do which of the following?
a. Determine when the client last ate
b. Ask the laboratory to draw serum BUN and creatinine levels
c. Ask the client if he/she has a history of asthma
d. Have the client sign a consent
12. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) is ordered for a client who has had a myocardial infarction. The nurse would expect which therapeutic result from administration of this drug?
a. Increased urinary output
b. Decreased coronary artery spasms
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Decreased resting heart rate
13. A client’s cardiac monitor strip shows the following: HR 42/min, rhythm regular, PRI 0.16 seconds, QRS 0.06 seconds. The client is experiencing dizziness, nausea, and chest pain rated as 3 on a scale of 1–10 with 10 being the worst pain. The drug of choice to treat this dysrhythmia is
a. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
b. Adenosine (Adenocard)
c. Atropine sulfate
d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
14. A client is admitted to the ER with new onset atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 110/min. The nurse would anticipate which of the following treatment options to be ordered. (Select all that apply.)
a. Defibrillation
b. Start oxygen at 2–4 lpm
c. Anticoagulant therapy
d. Medicate with beta blocker
e. Start Lidocaine drip
f. Atrial pacing
15. The nurse is assessing a newborn infant who is exhibiting the following signs and symptoms: elevated blood pressure, bounding brachial pulses, diminished pedal pulses, elevated Jugular venous distention (JVD), and cardiac murmur. Based on the assessment, the nurse would suspect that the client may have which of the following conditions?
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Mitral valve prolapse
d. Transposition of the great vessels
16. The nurse has assessed a client and has determined that the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of left heart failure. Identify which of the following are indicative of left heart failure.
a. Tachypnea, loss of appetite, ST elevation on the ECG
b. Hemoptysis, cogwheel murmur, midsternal chest pain
c. Ascites, oliguria, fatigue
d. Orthopnea, bibasilar crackles, gallop rhythm
17. The nurse is providing nutritional counseling for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic. Which meal plan would be most appropriate for this client?
a. Raisin bran cereal, tomato juice, whole grain toast
b. Boiled chicken, green beans, tossed salad
c. Vegetable soup, low-salt crackers, skim milk
d. Poached fish, beets, macaroni and cheese
18. The nurse is reading a 6-second cardiac rhythm strip and notes 9 QRS complexes in it. The client’s heart rate is
a. 54
b. 63
c. 81
d. 90
19. A client has been diagnosed with pericardial effusion. The nurse would prepare the client for which of the following procedures?
a. Myotomy
b. Pericardiectomy
c. Pericardiostomy
d. Dynamic cardiomyoplasty
20. Which instruction would be inappropriate to give a client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery?
a. No driving for 6–8 weeks
b. Avoid smoking or tobacco use for 4–6 weeks
c. No heavy lifting for 6–8 weeks
d. Can resume sexual intercourse in 3–4 weeks
1. The nurse realizes that more teaching is needed when the client on a cardiac low-cholesterol diet makes which choice from the menu?
a. Stewed chicken, green beans, and noodles
b. Liver and onions, salad with ranch dressing, and milk
c. Ham and bean soup, salad with vinaigrette dressing, and cornbread
d. Pork roast, brown rice, and beets
2. When taking a client’s medical history, which are the precipitating factors for myocardial infarction?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Rheumatic fever
e. Elevated serum iron level
f. High density lipids 40 mg
g. Using oral contraceptives
3. When the nurse performs an admission assessment on a client, the nurse notes that the client has xanthomas present on both eyelids. The laboratory value that the nurse would want to check based on this assessment finding is
a. triglyceride level
b. homocystine level
c. cardiac enzymes—CPK-MB, troponin, and myoglobin
d. cholesterol panel
4. A client presents to the clinic with the following symptoms: a burning sensation in the lower extremities, thickened toe nails, and pain in legs when walking. The nurse would assess the client for which additional factor consistent with Burger’s disease (thromboangitis obliterans)?
a. Bounding peripheral pulses
b. Rubor when the extremities are elevated
c. Intolerance to heat
d. Symptoms triggered by stress
5. A goal for a client with arteriosclerosis obliterans is to increase arterial blood supply to the extremities. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate for this goal?
a. Elevate the extremities above the level of the heart for 15 minutes four times a day.
b. Have client perform Buerger-Allen exercises four times a day.
c. Maintain client on bed rest with legs in a neutral position.
d. Position client in high-Fowler’s position with legs straight.
6. Which of the following assessment findings are consistent with the diagnosis of venous stasis?
a. Absent or diminished peripheral pulses
b. Hair loss on the extremity
c. Moist ulcers around the malleolus
d. Edema of the extremity
e. Coolness of the extremity
f. Leathery quality of the extremity
g. Pallor of the extremity
7. A client is returned to the unit after having a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The nurse should place the client in which of the following positions?
a. High-Fowler’s
b. Sims
c. Semi-Fowler’s
d. Flat
8. The nurse is giving a client low molecular weight heparin, enoxaparin. The correct nursing interventions when administering this medication include all of the following except
a. using a TB syringe
b. injecting the medicine using Z-track method
c. not rubbing the site postinjection
d. administering the medicine in the anterolateral abdominal wall
9. In order to prevent the postoperative complication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has had mitral valve replacement, the nurse would have the client engage in which of the following activities?
a. Perform dorsiflexion of the feet several times every hour while awake
b. Cough and take deep breaths every hour while awake
c. Sit up in a chair for several hours during the afternoon
d. Eat a high-fiber, high-calorie diet
10. The nurse is caring for a client who has just arrived on the unit following a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following assessments would be most immediate?
a. Heart and lung sounds
b. Pain at the catheter insertion site
c. Pulses distal to the insertion site
d. Urine output
11. A client comes into the ER complaining of “his heart racing.” Cardiac monitor shows atrial tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 190 bpm. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order adenosine (Adenocard) to be given. Prior to giving the medication the nurse should do which of the following?
a. Determine when the client last ate
b. Ask the laboratory to draw serum BUN and creatinine levels
c. Ask the client if he/she has a history of asthma
d. Have the client sign a consent
12. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) is ordered for a client who has had a myocardial infarction. The nurse would expect which therapeutic result from administration of this drug?
a. Increased urinary output
b. Decreased coronary artery spasms
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Decreased resting heart rate
13. A client’s cardiac monitor strip shows the following: HR 42/min, rhythm regular, PRI 0.16 seconds, QRS 0.06 seconds. The client is experiencing dizziness, nausea, and chest pain rated as 3 on a scale of 1–10 with 10 being the worst pain. The drug of choice to treat this dysrhythmia is
a. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
b. Adenosine (Adenocard)
c. Atropine sulfate
d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
14. A client is admitted to the ER with new onset atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 110/min. The nurse would anticipate which of the following treatment options to be ordered. (Select all that apply.)
a. Defibrillation
b. Start oxygen at 2–4 lpm
c. Anticoagulant therapy
d. Medicate with beta blocker
e. Start Lidocaine drip
f. Atrial pacing
15. The nurse is assessing a newborn infant who is exhibiting the following signs and symptoms: elevated blood pressure, bounding brachial pulses, diminished pedal pulses, elevated Jugular venous distention (JVD), and cardiac murmur. Based on the assessment, the nurse would suspect that the client may have which of the following conditions?
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Mitral valve prolapse
d. Transposition of the great vessels
16. The nurse has assessed a client and has determined that the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of left heart failure. Identify which of the following are indicative of left heart failure.
a. Tachypnea, loss of appetite, ST elevation on the ECG
b. Hemoptysis, cogwheel murmur, midsternal chest pain
c. Ascites, oliguria, fatigue
d. Orthopnea, bibasilar crackles, gallop rhythm
17. The nurse is providing nutritional counseling for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic. Which meal plan would be most appropriate for this client?
a. Raisin bran cereal, tomato juice, whole grain toast
b. Boiled chicken, green beans, tossed salad
c. Vegetable soup, low-salt crackers, skim milk
d. Poached fish, beets, macaroni and cheese
18. The nurse is reading a 6-second cardiac rhythm strip and notes 9 QRS complexes in it. The client’s heart rate is
a. 54
b. 63
c. 81
d. 90
19. A client has been diagnosed with pericardial effusion. The nurse would prepare the client for which of the following procedures?
a. Myotomy
b. Pericardiectomy
c. Pericardiostomy
d. Dynamic cardiomyoplasty
20. Which instruction would be inappropriate to give a client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery?
a. No driving for 6–8 weeks
b. Avoid smoking or tobacco use for 4–6 weeks
c. No heavy lifting for 6–8 weeks
d. Can resume sexual intercourse in 3–4 weeks
Sunday, December 1, 2013
NCLEX-RN DRILL: MEDICAL SURGICAL CARDIOVASCULAR A
Medical Surgical Nursing is a very broad area in the field of Nursing for it tackles the management of different client condition. Books in Medical Surgical Nursing are usually divided according to the Organ System of the Human Body. The Cardiovascular System is one of the most difficult areas to study and to master since any deviation in this system will affect every organ system. Mastery is needed to be able to answer board type questions pertaining to Cardiovascualr System.
1. A client with hypertension has an order for furosemide. Which lab finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Phosphorus 2.5 mEq/L
B. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dl
D. Magnesium 2.4 mEq/L
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart block. The nurse is aware that the pacemaker of the heart is the:
A. AV node
B. Purkinje fibers
C. SA node
D. Bundle of His
3. A client is being treated with nitroprusside (Nitropress). The nurse is aware that this medication:
A. Should be protected from light
B. Is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic
C. Causes vasoconstriction
D. Decreases circulation to the extremities
4. A client being treated with lisinopril (Zestril) develops a hacking cough. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Take half the dose to control the problem
B. Take cough medication to control the problem
C. Stop the medication
D. Report the problem to the doctor
5. An elderly client taking digitalis develops constipation. The nurse is aware that constipation in a client taking digitalis might:
A. Develop an elevated digitalis level
B. Have a decrease in the digitalis levels
C. Have alterations in sodium levels
D. Develop tachycardia
6. The client is suspected of having had a myocardium infarction. Which diagnostic finding is most significant?
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
7. A client with an internally implanted defibrillator should be taught to:
A. Avoid driving a car
B. Avoid eating food cooked in a microwave
C. Refrain from using a cellular phone
D. Report swelling at the site
8. A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Following the procedure, the nurse should:
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
9. A client with Buerger’s disease complains of pain in the lower extremities. The nurse is aware that Buerger’s disease is also called:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
10. A client with an abdominal aneurysm frequently complains of:
A. A headache
B. Shortness of breath only during sleep
C. Lower back pain
D. Difficulty voiding
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