Friday, February 28, 2014

Human Immunodeficiency Virus / Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome Lecture Notes

This is a Medical Surgical Nursing lecture note on AIDS/HIV in outlined format. Information and concepts are compressed to provide a quick review of the topic. Some information are so compressed that some concepts are not expounded in detail. If it is your first time to meet such information please refer to your textbook for further explanation of the concept. This review material requires a student to have a prior knowledge and good foundation of the subject matter for this only emphasizes important/ key information deemed important in understanding concepts in Pathophysiology and Medical Surgical Nursing.



Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

  •  AIDS is a viral disease caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to infection and malignancy
  •  The syndrome is manifested clinically by opportunistic infection and unusual neoplasms.
  • AIDS is considered a chronic illness.
  • The disease has a long incubation period, sometimes 10 years or longer.
  • Manifestations may not appear until late in the infection.


High-risk groups
Heterosexual or homosexual contact with high-risk individuals
Intravenous drug abusers
Persons receiving blood products
Health care workers
Babies born to infected mothers

Assessment
Malaise, fever, anorexia, weight loss, influenza-like symptoms
Lymphadenopathy for at least 3 months
Leukopenia
Diarrhea
Fatigue
Night sweats
Presence of opportunistic infections
Protozoal infections (Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, major source of mortality)
Neoplasms (Kaposi's sarcoma, purplish-red lesions of internal organs and skin, B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, cervical cancer)
Fungal infections (candidiasis, histoplasmosis)
Viral infections (cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex)
Bacterial infections

Interventions
1. Provide respiratory support.
2. Administer oxygen and respiratory treatments as prescribed.
3. Provide psychosocial support as needed.
4. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. Monitor for signs of infection.
6. Prevent the spread of infection.
7. Initiate standard precautions.
8. Provide comfort as necessary.
9. Provide meticulous skin care.
10. Provide adequate nutritional support as prescribed.


"Success is not final, failure is not fatal: it is the courage to continue that counts"

Tuesday, February 18, 2014

Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing C

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET C.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Melissa should expect that the child most likely would have an:

a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.


2.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires:

a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.


3.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has:

a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patant fontanelles
c. Moro’s reflex
d. Voided


4.Nurse Fe should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:

a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch


5.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula?

a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches


6. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?

a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.


7.Barangay Wakwak had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Wakwak?

a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.


8. May Anne a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:

a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects


9. Claudine, a 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis


10. Ronie a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?

a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery


11.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?

a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis


12.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck


13.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?

a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds


14.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?

a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease


15.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:

a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants


16.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?

a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR


17.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?

a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots


18.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?

a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear


19.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of
leprosy?

a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge


20. Perlita brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?

a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.


"Try not to become a man of success, but rather try to become a man of value."

Friday, February 14, 2014

Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing B

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET B.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1.According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?

a. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally.
b. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services.
c. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
d. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own places of residence.


2.Nurse Marie is aware that the disease declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the Philippines is?

a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus


3. Nure Franciene knows that the step in community organizing that involves training of potential leaders in the community is:

a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation


4. Nurse Anna a public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?

a. To educate the people regarding community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems.
d. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems.


5.Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?

a. Pre-pathogenesis
b. Pathogenesis
c. Prodromal
d. Terminal


6.The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the labor and delivery area. Which condition would place the client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

a. Intrauterine fetal death.
b. Placenta accreta.
c. Dysfunctional labor.
d. Premature rupture of the membranes.


7.A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal heart rate would be:

a. 80 to 100 beats/minute
b. 100 to 120 beats/minute
c. 120 to 160 beats/minute
d. 160 to 180 beats/minute


8.The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Gretel should instruct the mother to:

a. Change the diaper more often.
b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.
c. Wash the area vigorously with each diaper change.
d. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to decrease saturating diapers.


9.Nurse Carlos knows that the common cardiac anomalies in children with Down Syndrome (tri-somy 21) is:

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Pulmonic stenosis
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Endocardial cushion defect


10. Nurse Cristeta was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia is now receiving I.V. magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects associated with magnesium sulfate is:

a. Anemia
b. Decreased urine output
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased respiratory rate


11. Mrs. Pregy Der, a 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:

a. Menorrhagia
b. Metrorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Amenorrhea


12. Mrs. Caby Nhet is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The critical laboratory result for this client would be:

a. Oxygen saturation
b. Iron binding capacity
c. Blood typing
d. Serum Calcium


13.Nurse Dorothy is aware that the most common condition found during the second-trimester of pregnancy is:

a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia


14.Nurse Imo Gin is working in the triage area of an emergency department. She sees that several pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client who needs to be treated first is:

a. A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on his scalp.
b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and flushed appearance.
c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is pale and asleep in
his mother’s arms.
d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his
mother’s arms and drooling.


15. Mrs. Calista in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease


16.A young child named Louella is suspected of having pinworms. The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen for:

a. Just before bedtime
b. After the child has been bathe
c. Any time during the day
d. Early in the morning


17.In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse Angelique should be alert to note which signs or symptoms of chronic lead poisoning?

a. Irritability and seizures
b. Dehydration and diarrhea
c. Bradycardia and hypotension
d. Petechiae and hematuria


18.To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which response indicates a need for further health teaching?

a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for atleast 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.


19.Hypoxia is a common complication of laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver should frequently assess a child with laryngotracheobronchitis for:
a. Drooling
b. Muffled voice
c. Restlessness
d. Low-grade fever


20.How should Nurse Melanie Marquez guide a child who is blind to walk to the playroom?

a. Without touching the child, talk continuously as the child walks down the hall.
b. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s hand on the nurse’s elbow.
c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child forward.
d. Walk next to the child, holding the child’s hand.


Failure is the condiment that gives success its flavor.” -Capote

Wednesday, February 12, 2014

Pre-Board Exam Drill: Maternal Child and Community Health Nursing A

This is a 30 point Pre-Board Exam Drill on Maternal and Child Nursing and Community Health Nursing SET A.

Test your knowledge on nursing concepts, test your test-taking skills and develop your attitude in attacking board exam questions. Answer these questions on a piece of paper. Check your answers and don't forget to review the rationale behind the correct answer. Good luck with your exam!

1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home pregnancy test was positive but she began to have mild cramps and is now having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the physical examination of the client, the nurse notes that May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines that May is experiencing which type of abortion?

a. Inevitable
b. Incomplete
c. Threatened
d. Septic


2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following data, if noted on the client’s record, would alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?

a. Age 36 years
b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus


3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who is newly admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel develops a plan of care for the client and determines that which of the following nursing actions is the priority?

a. Monitoring weight
b. Assessing for edema
c. Monitoring apical pulse
d. Monitoring temperature


4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant client about nutrition and insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client understands dietary and insulin needs if the client states that the second half of pregnancy require:

a. Decreased caloric intake
b. Increased caloric intake
c. Decreased Insulin
d. Increase Insulin


5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is aware that one of the following is unassociated with this condition?

a. Excessive fetal activity.
b. Larger than normal uterus for gestational age.
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.


6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:

a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
b. Absent patellar reflexes.
c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
d. Rapid rise in blood pressure.


7. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as:

a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.


8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:

a. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
b. Maternal temperature 101.2
c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.


9. Calcium gluconate is being administered to a client with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as the plan of care throughout injection of the drug is:

a. Ventilator assistance
b. CVP readings
c. EKG tracings
d. Continuous CPR


10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier caesareans, would likely to be given to a gravida, who had:

a. First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was positive.
b. First and second caesareans were for cephalopelvic disproportion.
c. First caesarean through a classic incision as a result of severe fetal distress.
d. First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.


11.Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s temperature is:

a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
d. Ignore the crying and screaming.


12.Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip and palate repair. What should the nurse do to prevent trauma to operative site?

a. Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning.
b. Place the baby in prone position.
c. Give the baby a pacifier.
d. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.


13. Which action should nurse Marian include in the care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure?

a. Feed the infant when he cries.
b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
c. Bathe the infant and administer medications before feeding.
d. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.


14.Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to discontinue breast feeding after 5 months. The nurse should advise her to include which foods in her infant’s diet?

a. Skim milk and baby food.
b. Whole milk and baby food.
c. Iron-rich formula only.
d. Iron-rich formula and baby food.


15.Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic. The mother hides a toy behind her back and the infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that estimated age of the infant
would be:

a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months


16.Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?

a. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchments area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.


17.When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating

a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness


18.Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to become a Public Health Nurse. Where should she apply?

a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit


19.Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is:

a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician


20.Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.


"Dare to be"- Maraboli

Monday, February 3, 2014

Notes on Fluid and Electrolyte 2: CONCEPTS OF FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE

CONCEPTS OF FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE


A. Electrolytes
1. Description: A substance that is dissolved in solution and ome of its molecules split or dissociate into electrically charged atoms or ions.
2. Measurement
a. The metric system is used to measure volumes of fluids—liters (L) or milliliters (mL).
b. The unit of measure that expresses the combining activity of an electrolyte is the milliequivalent (mEq).
c. One milliequivalent (1 mEq) of any cation will always react chemically with 1 mEq of an anion.
d. Milliequivalents provide information about the number of anions or cations available to combine with other anions or cations.

B. Body fluid compartments

1. Description
a. Fluid in each of the body compartments contains electrolytes.
b. Each compartment has a particular composition of electrolytes, which differs from that of other compartments.
c. To function normally, body cells must have fluids and electrolytes in the right compartments and in the right amounts.
d. Whenever an electrolyte moves out of a cell, another electrolyte moves in to take its place.
e. The numbers of cations and anions must be the same for homeostasis to exist.
f. Compartments are separated by semipermeable membranes.

2. Intravascular compartment: Refers to fluid inside a blood vessel

3. Intracellular compartment
a. The intracellular compartment refers to all fluid inside the cell.
b. Most bodily fluids are inside the cell.

4. The extracellular compartment is the fluid outside the cell.
a. The extracellular compartment includes the interstitial fluid, which is fluid between cells (sometimes called the third space), blood, lymph, bone, connective tissue, water, and transcellular fluid.
b. Transcellular fluid is the fluid in various parts of the body, such as peritoneal fluid, pleural fluid, cerebrospinal fluid, and synovial fluid.

C. Third-spacing
1. Third-spacing is the accumulation and sequestration of trapped extracellular fluid in an actual or potential body space as a result of disease or injury.
2. The trapped fluid represents a volume loss and is unavailable for normal physiological processes.
3. Fluid may be trapped in body spaces such as the pericardial, pleural, peritoneal, or joint cavities, the bowel, or the aabdomen, or within soft tissues after trauma or burns.
4. Assessing the intravascular fluid loss caused by third-spacing is difficult. The loss may not be reflected
in weight changes or intake and output records and may not become apparent until after organ malfunction occurs.

D. Edema
1. Edema is an excess accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.
2. Localized edema occurs as a result of traumatic injury from accidents or surgery, local inflammatory processes, or burns.
3. Generalized edema, also called anasarca, is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space throughout the body and occurs as a result of conditions such as cardiac, renal, or liver failure.

E. Body fluid
1. Description
a. Body fluids transport nutrients to the cells and carry waste products from the cells.
b. Total body fluid (intracellular and extracellular) amounts to about 60% of body weight in the adult,
55% in the older adult, and 80% in the infant.
c. Thus, infants and the older adult are at ahigher risk for fluid-related problems than younger adults; children have a greater proportion of body water than adults and the older adult has the least proportion of body water.
2. Constituents of body fluids
a. Body fluids consist of water and dissolved substances.
b. The largest single fluid constituent of the body is water.
c. Some substances, such as glucose, urea, and creatinine, do not dissociate in solution; that is, they do not separate from their complex forms into simpler substances when they are in solution.
d. Other substances do dissociate; for example, when sodium chloride is in a solution, it dissociates or
separates into two parts or elements.

F. Body fluid transport
1. Diffusion
a. Diffusion is the process whereby a solute (substance that is dissolved) may spread through a solution or solvent (solution in which the solute is dissolved).
b. Diffusion of a solute will spread the molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
c. A permeable membrane will allow substances to pass through it without restriction.
d. A selectively permeable membrane will allow some solutes to pass through without restriction but will prevent other solutes from passing freely.
e. Diffusion occurs within fluid compartments and from one compartment to another if the barrier
between the compartments is permeable to the diffusing substances.

2. Osmosis
a. Osmotic pressure is the force that draws the solvent from a less concentrated solute through a selectively permeable membrane into a more concentrated solute, thus tending to equalize the concentration of the solvent.
b. If a membrane is permeable to water but not to all the solutes present, the membrane is a selective or semipermeable membrane.
c. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules across a membrane in response to a concentration gradient, usually from a solution of lower to one of higher solute concentration.
d. When a more concentrated solution is on one side of a selectively permeable membrane and a less concentrated solution is on the other side, a pull called osmotic pressure draws the water through
the membrane to the more concentrated side or the side with more solute.

3. Filtration
a. Filtration is the movement of solutes and solvents by hydrostatic pressure.
b. The movement is from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.

4. Hydrostatic pressure
a. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by the weight of a solution.
b. When a difference exists in the hydrostatic pressure on two sides of a membrane, water and diffusible solutes move out of the solution that has the higher hydrostatic pressure by the process of filtration.
c. At the arterial end of the capillary, the hydrostatic pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure; therefore, fluids and diffusible solutes move out of the capillary.
d. At the venous end, the osmotic pressure or pull is higher than the hydrostatic pressure, and fluids and some solutes move into the capillary.
e. The excess fluid and solutes remaining in the interstitial spaces are returned to the intravascular compartment by the lymph channels.

5. Osmolality
a. Osmolality refers to the number of osmotically active particles/kilogram of water; it is the concentration of a solution.
b. In the body, osmotic pressure is measured in milliosmoles (mOsm).
c. The normal osmolality of plasma is 270 to 300 milliosmoles/kilogram (mOsm/kg) water.

G. Movement of body fluid
1. Description
a. Cell membranes separate the interstitial fluid from the intravascular fluid.
b. Cell membranes are selectively permeable; that is, the cell membrane and the capillary wall will allow water and some solutes free passage through them.
c. Several forces affect the movement of water and solutes through the walls of cells and capillaries.
d. The greater the number of particles within the cell, the more pressure exists to force the water through
the cell membrane.
e. If the body loses more electrolytes than fluids, as can happen in diarrhea, then the extracellular fluid will contain fewer electrolytes or less solute than the intracellular fluid.
f. Fluids and electrolytes must be kept in balance for health; when they remain out of balance, death can
occur.

2. Isotonic solutions
a. When the solutions on both sides of a selectively permeable membrane have established equilibrium or are equal in concentration, they are isotonic.
b. An example of an isotonic solution is 0.9% sodium chloride, which is referred to as isotonic saline solution or normal saline solution.
c. Isotonic solutions are isotonic to human cells, and thus very little osmosis occurs; isotonic solutions have the same osmolality as body fluids.
d. Other solutions that are isotonic are 5% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.225% saline, and Ringer's
lactate solution.

3. Hypotonic solutions
a. When a solution contains a lower concentration of salt or solute than another more concentrated solution, it is considered hypotonic.
b. A hypotonic solution has less salt or more water than an isotonic solution; these solutions have lower osmolality than body fluids.
c. 0.45% sodium chloride, 0.225% sodium chloride, and 0.33% sodium chloride are examples of hypotonic solutions.
d. Hypotonic solutions are hypotonic to the cells; therefore, osmosis would continue in an attempt to bring about balance or equality.

4. Hypertonic solutions
a. A solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than another less concentrated solution is hypertonic; these solutions have a higher osmolality than body fluids.
b. Hypertonic solutions include 3% sodium chloride, 5% sodium chloride, 10% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride, 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride, and 5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate solution.
c. Refer to Table 14-1 (Chap. 14) for a list of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic solutions.

5. Osmotic pressure
a. The amount of osmotic pressure is determined by the concentration of solutes in solution.
b. When the solutions on each side of a selectively permeable membrane are equal in concentration, they are isotonic.
c. A hypotonic solution has less solute than an isotonic solution, whereas a hypertonic solution contains more solute.
d. A solvent will move from the less concentrated solute side to the more concentrated solute side to equalize concentration.

6. Active transport
a. If an ion is to move through a membrane from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration, an active transport system is necessary.
b. An active transport system moves molecules or ions against concentration and osmotic pressure.
c. Metabolic processes in the cell supply the energy for active transport.
d. Substances that are transported actively through the cell membrane include ions of sodium, potassium, calcium, iron, and hydrogen, some of the sugars, and the amino acids.

H. Body fluid excretion
1. Description
a. Fluids leave the body by several routes, including the skin, lungs, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys.
b. The kidneys excrete the largest quantity of fluid.
c. As long as all organs are functioning normally, the body is able to maintain balance in its fluid content.

2. Skin
a. Water is lost through the skin in the amount of about 400 mL/day.
b. The amount of water lost by perspiration varies according to the temperature of the environment and of the body, but the average amount of loss by perspiration alone is 100 mL/day.
c. Water lost through the skin is called insensible loss (the individual is unaware of losing that water).

3. Lungs
a. Water is lost from the lungs through expired air that is saturated with water vapor.
b. The amount of water lost from the lungs varies with the rate and the depth of respiration.
c. The average amount of water lost from the lungs is about 350 mL/day.
d. Water lost from the lungs is called insensible loss.

4. Gastrointestinal tract
a. Large quantities of water are secreted into the gastrointestinal tract, but almost all this fluid is reabsorbed.
b. A large volume of electrolyte-containing liquids moves into the gastrointestinal tract and then returns again into the extracellular fluid.
c. The average amount of water lost in the feces is 150 mL/day, equal to the amount of water gained through the oxidation of foods.
d. Severe diarrhea results in the loss of large quantities of fluids and electrolytes.

5. Kidneys
a. The kidneys play a major role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance.
b. Normal kidneys can adjust the amount of water and electrolytes leaving the body.
c. The quantity of fluid excreted by the kidneys is determined by the amount of water ingested and the amount of waste and solutes excreted.
d. The usual urine output is about 1500 mL/day; however, this varies greatly depending on fluid intake, amount of perspiration, and other factors.

I. Body fluid replacement
1. Description: Water enters the body through three sources—orally ingested liquids, water in foods, and water formed by oxidation of foods.
2. Amounts
a. The average total amount of water taken into the body by all three sources is 2500 mL/day.
b. About 10 mL of water is released by the metabolism of each 100 calories of fat, carbohydrates, or proteins.
3. Electrolytes
a. Electrolytes are present in foods and liquids.
b. With a normal diet, an excess of essential electrolytes is
taken in and the unused electrolytes are excreted.

J. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
1. Description
a. Homeostasis is a term that indicates the relative stability of the internal environment.
b. Concentration and composition of body fluids must be nearly constant.
c. In a client, when one of the substances is deficient, either fluids or electrolytes, the substance must be replaced normally by the intake of food and water or by therapy such as intravenous solutions and medications.
d. When the client has an excess of fluid or electrolytes, therapy is directed toward assisting the body to eliminate the excess.
2. The kidneys play a major role in controlling all types of balance in fluid and electrolytes.
3. The adrenal glands, through the secretion of aldosterone, also aid in controlling extracellular fluid volume by regulating the amount of sodium reabsorbed by the kidneys.
4. Antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland regulates the osmotic pressure of extracellular fluid by regulating the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidney.


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Sunday, February 2, 2014

Notes on Fluids and Electrolytes Part 1

This Notes on Fluids and Electrolytes (1) focus primarily on the assessment of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance, interventions, and evaluating the expected outcomes. Fluids and electrolytes constitute a content area that is sometimes complex and difficult to understand. The nurse must understand cell functions and properties and the concepts related to body fluids as outlined in this chapter. It focuses on the common fluid and electrolyte disturbances. As you review this content, focus on the Pyramid Points related to the causes, assessment findings, and related treatments. In any fluid or electrolyte imbalance, nursing interventions include monitoring significant laboratory results and monitoring the client's cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neuromuscular, renal, and central nervous system status. Integrated Processes addressed in this chapter are Caring, Communication and Documentation, Nursing Process, and Teaching/Learning.

Important Terms

calcium
A mineral element needed for the process of bone formation, coagulation of blood, excitation of cardiac and skeletal muscle, maintenance of muscle tone, conduction of neuromuscular impulses, and the synthesis and regulation of the endocrine and exocrine glands. The normal adult level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL.

fluid volume deficit
Dehydration in which the fluid intake of the body is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body.

fluid volume excess
Fluid intake or fluid retention that exceeds the fluid needs of the body. Also called overhydration or fluid overload.

homeostasis
The tendency of biological systems to maintain relatively constant conditions in the internal environment while continuously interacting with and adjusting to changes originating within or outside the system.

hypercalcemia
A serum calcium level that exceeds 10.0 mg/dL.

hyperkalemia
A serum potassium level that exceeds 5.1 mEq/L.

hypermagnesemia
A serum magnesium level that exceeds 2.6 mg/dL.

hypernatremia
A serum sodium level that exceeds 145 mEq/L.

hyperphosphatemia
A serum phosphorus level that exceeds 4.5 mg/dL.

hypocalcemia
A serum calcium level less than 8.6 mg/dL.

hypokalemia
A serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L.

hypomagnesemia
A serum magnesium level less than 1.6 mg/dL.

hyponatremia
A serum sodium level less than 135 mEq/L.

hypophosphatemia
A serum phosphorus level less than 2.7 mg/dL.

magnesium
Concentrated in the bone, cartilage, and within the cell itself; required for the use of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as a source of energy. It is necessary for the action of numerous enzyme systems such as carbohydrate metabolism, protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, and contraction of muscular tissue. It
also regulates neuromuscular activity and the clotting mechanism. The normal adult level is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL.

potassium
A principle electrolyte of intracellular fluid and the primary buffer within the cell itself. It is needed for nerve conduction, muscle function, acid-base balance, and osmotic pressure. Along with calcium and magnesium, it controls

sodium
An abundant electrolyte that maintains osmotic pressure and acid-base balance and transmits nerve impulses. The normal adult level is 135 to 145 mEq/L.